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Corporations and Limited Liability for Torts

From Mises Blog (archived comments below)

Corporations and Limited Liability for Torts

There’s been a good deal of discussion lately of the legitimacy of corporations: see my posts Left-Libertarians on Corporations “Expropriating the Efforts of Stakeholders” and In Defense of the Corporation. Various types–anti-industrialists, socialists, left-libertarians–make a variety of criticisms of the corporation. Some oppose it because they oppose “capitalism”; or because it is invariably in bed with the state; or because it exploits workers; or because they dislike “bigness”. Most of these are wrongheaded or off point.

Another very common criticism is that corporations receive special privileges from the state–”limited liability”. This concerns two basic issues: the limited liability of shareholders for contractual liability of the corporation; and for torts committed by employees of the corporation. The former is easily dealt with–see Hessen (more on this below).

The most controversial issue is the tort issue. This is bizarre for a number of reasons. In the typical case, the victim injured by the tort of an employee of the corporation can of course sue the employee who committed the tort; but he usually just sues the company because it has deep pockets. He is not usually affected by the inability to sue the shareholders, since he would not anyway. The corporate assets, or its insurance, would cover it. But it bugs anti-corporate types that shareholders can’t be sued for torts of employees of a company they own shares in.

Lately I’ve begun to emphasize that the anti-corporatists, in characterizing limited liability as a privilege, have to assume that on the free market shareholders should have liability. But this is a dubious assumption. First, it rests on the idea of respondeat superior (master is liable for torts of his servant), which itself dubious. Second, it rests on an undeveloped notion of strict liability which assumes that you are liable for torts committed “with [or by?] your property.” But property does not commit crimes or torts–people do. Property serves as means. If you borrow my car and run over someone, it is not obvious to me that I am responsible for your negligent action–just because I owned the car. Second, as I discussed in The Over-reliance on State Classifications: “Employee” and “Shareholder”, this rests too much on state definitions of ownership. Marriage, shareholder, owner, adult, citizen, money, bank, employer, employee, hobby, …. — so many things are keyed off their classifications. It irks me when libertarians build up their arguments and concepts based on these, as if they are objective and valid distinctions.

Looking at reality: ownership is the right to control a resource–in a company it’s distributed, since shareholders can’t just walk in and use the assets of the company (drives its cars; use its HQ to throw a party). As a practical matter, people with control over property are distributed in complex ways.

Second, it’s often assumed that shareholders are “investors”–people who gave money to the company. This seems to implicitly assume that you are responsible for aiding and abetting the company. Several problems here. (a) shareholders are not necessarily investors (if you buy Exxon stock from another shareholder, you give him money, but not Exxon); (b) other people give Exxon much more money, like customers; (c) the control exerted by shareholders is minimal–they can vote for board members, who in turn appoint officers, who hire managers and employees. Others–creditors, vendors, contractors, employees, unions, “stakeholders”–often exert more influence over what the company does than any given shareholder or even the whole class of shareholders.

I believe the only way to sort this out is to apply a carefully developed and libertarian-compatible theory of causation. Whenever you want to attribute responsibility to A for actions of B, you have to have a good reason. This area is underdeveloped but my approach is laid out in Causation and Aggression. I am not even sure if respondeat superior is justified; much less stretching it to cover shareholders–stretching it so far would make so many other parties potentially responsible for the actions of one tortfeasor. Libertarians want to just point to the rules developed in the common law and take this for granted, as if it’s unquestionably legitimate. It’s not. We are libertarians, not positivists.

I just recalled, in correspondence with Brad Spangler, that there is a great pity excerpt from Hessen, pp. 18-21 of his classic book In Defense of the Corporation. He grants (a bit too generously, perhaps) the application of respondeat superior to the company itself, but argues very concisely–and without a carefully developed theory of causation but with sound insight and good intuition–why shareholders should not be liable for torts of employees. I highly recommend you read pp. 18-21. (N.b. left-libertarians: at pp. 20-21, Hessen explains that if anything, the state takeover of corporate law benefits not large companies, but small, one-man and “close” corporations since they would normally be liable for their actions, unlike shareholders of a large company.)

Bottom line: libertarians who claim that limited liability for torts is a state privilege have the burden of proving that shareholders should be liable for torts committed by employees of a company the shareholder owns a share in–and to show why creditors, suppliers, employees, and other “aiders and abetters” are not liable. And don’t just point to the common law rules and respondeat superior–we are libertarians. Show why this rule is libertarian.

I went over this in a 2004 LRC post, Legitimizing the Corporation, which I excerpt below:

***

… most people don’t even realize that if a FedEx truck runs you over negligently you can sue the driver. They think he is immune from suit or something. But it is the other way around; if a FedEx truck negligently hits you, it is of course the driver that is responsible. His employer is responsible for its employee’s own negligence and liability only because of the doctrine of respondeat superior; but if the employee is found to be non-negligent, the employer-corporation is off the hook too. This is in fact why corporations usually defend their employee and themselves when sued for the employee’s actions.

 

But opposition does not always stem from ignorance of the law or leftism: for example, one critique comes from two libertarian-Austrian attorneys: “De-legitimizing the Corporation: An Austrian analysis of the firm”, Jeffrey F. Barr & Lee Iglody, Austrian Scholars Conference 7, March 30-31, 2001, Auburn, Alabama.

Robert Hessen’s (a Randian) In Defense of the Corporation is a good defense of corporations. He shows that they don’t require privilege from the state to exist; they can be constructed from private contracts. One of Hessen’s articles nicely summarizes some of his views. Some excerpts are pasted below. My view is that corporations are essentially compatible with libertarianism. As for voluntary debts being limited to the corporation’s assets; this is no problem since the creditor knows these limitations when he loans money. What about limited liability for torts or crimes? As mentioned, the person direclty responsible for a tort or crime is always liable; sometimes the employer (which is often a corporation) is also liable for the employee’s actions, via respondeat superior. Who else should be responsible? In my view, those who cause the damage are responsible. Shareholders don’t cause it any more than a bank who loans money to a company causes its employees to commit torts. The shareholders give money; and elect directors. The directors appoint officers/executives. The officers hire employees and direct what goes on. Now to the extent a given manager orders or otherwise causes a given action that damages someone, a case can be made that the manager is causally responsible, jointly liable with the employee who directly caused the damage. It’s harder to argue the directors are so directly responsible, but depending on the facts, it could be argued in some cases. But it’s very fact specific. Perhaps the rules on causation should be relaxed or modified, but this has nothing to do with there being a corporation or not–for the laws of causation should apply to any manager or person of sufficient influence in the organization hierarchy, regardless of legal form of the organization (that is, whether it’s a corporation, partnership, sole proprietorship, or what have you).

Excerpts from the Hessen article

The actual procedure for creating a corporation consists of filing a registration document with a state official (like recording the use of a fictitious business name), and the state’s role is purely formal and automatic. Moreover, to call incorporation a “privilege” implies that individuals have no right to create a corporation. But why is governmental permission needed? Who would be wronged if businesses adopted corporate features by contract? Whose rights would be violated if a firm declared itself to be a unit for the purposes of suing and being sued, holding and conveying title to property, or that it would continue in existence despite the death or withdrawal of its officers or investors, that its shares are freely transferable, or if it asserted limited liability for its debt obligations? (Liability for torts is a separate issue; see Hessen, pp. 18-21.) If potential creditors find any of these features objectionable, they can negotiate to exclude or modify them.

Economists invariably declare limited liability to be the crucial corporate feature. According to this view the corporation, as an entity, contracts debts in “its” own name, not “theirs” (the shareholders), so they are not responsible for its debts. But there is no need for such mental gymnastics because limited liability actually involves an implied contract between shareholders and outside creditors. By incorporating (that is, complying with the registration procedure prescribed by state law) and then by using the symbols “Inc.” or “Corp.,” shareholders are warning potential creditors that they do not accept unlimited personal liability, that creditors must look only to the corporation’s assets (if any) for satisfaction of their claims. This process, known as “constructive notice,” offers an easy means of economizing on transactions costs. It is an alternative to negotiating explicit limited-liability contracts with each creditor.

Creditors, however, are not obligated to accept limited liability. As Professor Bayless Manning observes; “As a part of the bargain negotiated when the corporation incurs the indebtedness, the creditor may, of course, succeed in extracting from a shareholder (or someone else who wants to see the loan go through) an outside pledge agreement, guaranty, endorsement, or the like that will have the effect of subjecting non-corporate assets to the creditor’s claim against the corporation.” This familiar pattern explains why limited liability is likely to be a mirage or delusion for a new, untested business, and thus also explains why some enterprises are not incorporated despite the ease of creating a corporation.

Another textbook myth is that limited liability explains why corporations were able to attract vast amounts of capital from nineteenth-century investors to carry out America’s industrialization. In fact, the industrial revolution was carried out chiefly by partnerships and unincorporated joint stock companies, rarely by corporations. The chief sources of capital for the early New England textile corporations were the founders’ personal savings, money borrowed from banks, the proceeds from state-approved lotteries, and the sale of bonds and debentures.

Even in the late nineteenth century, none of the giant industrial corporations drew equity capital from the general investment public. They were privately held and drew primarily on retained earnings for expansion. (The largest enterprise, Carnegie Brothers, was organized as a Limited Partnership Association in the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania, a status that did not inhibit its ability to own properties and sell steel in other states.)

External financing, through the sale of common stock, was nearly impossible in the nineteenth century because of asymmetrical information–that is, the inability of outside investors to gauge which firms were likely to earn a profit, and thus to calculate what would be a reasonable price to pay for shares. Instead, founders of corporations often gave away shares as a bonus to those who bought bonds, which were less risky because they carried underlying collateral, a fixed date of redemption, and a fixed rate of return. Occasionally, wealthy local residents bought shares, not primarily as investments for profit, but rather as a public-spirited gesture to foster economic growth in a town or region. The idea that limited liability would have been sufficient to entice outside investors to buy common stock is counterintuitive. The assurance that you could lose only your total investment is hardly a persuasive sales pitch.

No logical or moral necessity links partnerships with unlimited liability or corporations with limited liability. Legal rules do not suddenly spring into existence full grown; instead, they arise in a particular historical context. Unlimited liability for partners dates back to medieval Italy, when partnerships were family based, when personal and business funds were intermingled, and when family honor required payment of debts owed to creditors, even if it meant that the whole debt would be paid by one or two partners instead of being shared proportionally among them all.

Well into the twentieth century, American judges ignored the historical circumstances in which unlimited liability became the custom and later the legal rule. Hence they repeatedly rejected contractual attempts by partners to limit their liability. Only near midcentury did state legislatures grudgingly begin enacting “close corporation” statutes for businesses that would be organized as partnerships if courts were willing to recognize the contractual nature of limited liability. These quasi-corporations have nearly nothing in common with corporations financed by outside investors and run by professional managers.

Any firm, regardless of size, can be structured as a corporation, a partnership, a limited partnership, or even one of the rarely used forms, a business trust or an unincorporated joint stock company. Despite textbook claims to the contrary, partnerships are not necessarily small scale or short-lived; they need not cease to exist when a general partner dies or withdraws. Features that are automatic or inherent in a corporation–continuity of existence, hierarchy of authority, freely transferable shares–are optional for a partnership or any other organizational form. The only exceptions arise if government restricts or forbids freedom of contract (such as the rule that forbids limited liability for general partners).

archived comments:

Comments (72)

  • Brent
  • If you want to get into it, the workers comp exemption from normal liability rules requiring negligence or fault is a much clearer violation of libertarianism than is the limiting of tort actions against shareholders.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 12:26 AM

  • Matias Forss
  • On the question of respondeat superior: without statutory or common law enforcement of this doctrine, most FedEx employees would probably want some kind of protection from liability as part of their contract of employment, just so they wouldn’t be enslaved for their debts if they happen to run over someone. An alternative would be a postal workers union insurance pool.Large-scale industrial activities would need some kind of respondeat superior -rules. It just doesn’t seem right that only the pilot would be responsible for an oil tanker accident, for instance.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 12:53 AM

  • Brad Spangler
  • My related blog post detailing the discussion Stephan and I had can be found here:Dialogue of the Damned: Corporate Limited Liability (again)
    http://www.bradspangler.com/blog/archives/1113
  • Published: December 11, 2008 2:08 AM

  • MHC
  • Okay, Kinsella and Spangler have gotten into a debate about this, so I’m posting my thoughts.Spooner suggests that a good way to go about determining natural law is to perform a comparative analysis and go for the common ground by eliminating all of the unique peculiarities of each system. Kinsella takes that approach here. Other’s should follow suit.Spooner’s method is vastly superior to the blind adherence to the common law that many libertarians exhibit. Thankfully things are common around, Benson demonstrated in his great book, The Enterprise of Law, that the common law is a wholly statist endeavor. Additionally No serious student of comparative law would claim that the common law is a good or even representative legal system.In fact, is decidedly outside of the mainstream of western law. Substantially all of our concepts, including basic things like “ownership”, “property”, and “contract” come from the Romans. Most of our doctrine comes from private medieval lawyers who wrote commentaries and glosses on Roman texts. (For more on this see Gordley, 88 Calif. L. Rev. 1815). Much of family law originated in the Cannon Law of the Catholic church, and much of mercantile law was reintroduced to Europe via the Rabbinic courts.

    A serious consideration of any libertarian legal point, out to take in all of these sources and, as Spooner advocates, attempt to find a common ground.

    As to this specific issue:

    Respondeat superior exists only at common law. In other jurisdictions you have to prove general causation, in some causation cannot be proved as a matter of law even when the superior explicitly commanded an employee to violate someone’s rights. The legal arguments for these alternative positions are every bit as compelling as those for the common law’s pet approach (if not more so.) And Kinsella rightly rejects the unique and quirky common law rule.

    As for the view of the corporation as property owned by the shareholders. This is also a traditional common law view. It is much better to view the corporation as a species of the wider genus “company” and to view each company as a nexus of contracts. This approach dramatically clarifies the situation and also allows for the analysis of the far more complicated organizational structures exhibited by modern companies.

    Essentially, stock holders should not be viewed as “owners”, but as “investors”. Consequently they should not be held anymore responsible than silent partners (who are also shielded from tort liability for reasons of causation).

  • Published: December 11, 2008 2:32 AM

  • TokyoTom
  • By the way, Stephan, I don’t consider myself an “anti-corporate type”, or an “anti-industrialist”, “socialist” or “left-libertarian” either.I’m just an anti-uncontracted-for-limited-liaibility-for-torts” type. There are plenty of my type in the world of corporate lawyers, as I noted on the other thread.Here are a few links on law and economics to aid those who want to refer to the academic discussion in the legal profession:Hansmann, H and Krackman, R, Towards Unlimited Shareholder Liability for Corporate Torts, 100 Yale Law J. 1879 (1991). http://www.law.yale.edu/documents/pdf/Faculty/Hansmann_Toward_Unlimited_Shareholder_Liability_for_Corporate_Torts.pdf

    Hansmann, H and Krackman, R, Do the Capital Markets Compel Limited Liability?, 102 Yale L.J. 427 (1992). http://www.law.yale.edu/documents/pdf/Faculty/Hansmann_Do_the_Capital_Markets_Comple_Limited_Liability.pdf

    Nina A. Mendelson, A Control-Based Approach to Shareholder Liability for Corporate Torts, 102 COLUM. L. REV. 1203, 1205-06 (2002).

    Timothy P. Glynn, Beyond “Unlimiting” Shareholder Liability: Vicarious Tort Liability for Corporate Officers, 57 Vanderbilt L.Rev. 330 (2004). http://law.vanderbilt.edu/publications/vanderbilt-law-review/archive/volume-57-number-2-march-2004/download.aspx?id=2983

    David Millon, Piercing the Corporate Veil, Financial Responsibility, and the Limits of Limited Liability,
    Washington & Lee Public Law Research Paper No. 03-13 (2003), http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=932959

  • Published: December 11, 2008 4:54 AM

  • P.M.Lawrence
  • ‘Another very common criticism is that corporations receive special privileges from the state–“limited liability”. This concerns two basic issues: the limited liability of shareholders for contractual liability of the corporation; and for torts committed by employees of the corporation.’Bluntly, that’s wrong, which makes this a straw man. Those are the two main special privileges in ordinary circumstances, deplorable to the extent that they are sustained by such intervention, but there is another, even deeper special privilege: entity status, which (short of a judge finding “failure of substratum”) gives a corporation a quasi-life of its own and allows it freedom from the inherent internal limits that other kinds of firm face – even partnerships that achieve Hessen-style limited liability or limited liability in other ways (elsewhere I describe how silent or sleeping partners can lie low, so achieving de facto limited liability). Without those limits, they gain the sort of advantage that an animal without size and lifespan limits would achieve in an ecology – they crowd out other entities, including natural persons.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 6:44 AM

  • Dick Fox
  • P.M.Lawrence,Excellent post.A corporation is a creation of government. Because it becomes a virtual person there is very limited recourse when a corporation(sic) violates the law. If the individuals in a corporation were actually liable as Stephan implies there might not be a problem, but the primary reason people incorporate a business is to limit liability.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 7:25 AM

  • scineram
  • And why the hell should they be liable?
  • Published: December 11, 2008 8:12 AM

  • JA
  • A corporation is a creation of governmentFlesh-and-blood people are registered with the state through birth certificates.Hence, people are creations of the state.Parents register with the state when they give birth to a child.

    Hence, parents and families and children are creations of the state.

    A man and woman who marry register with the state.

    Hence, marriages are creations of the state.

    But remember…Left-libertarian “logic” is anti-statist (heh!)

    but the primary reason people incorporate a business is to limit liability.

    Yes, liability from creditors, as mentioned a million times already. Not from torts. Do we need to re-post the wikipedia dictionary definition of “corporation” again? So what else have you got?

  • Published: December 11, 2008 8:20 AM

  • JA
  • Without those limits, they gain the sort of advantage that an animal without size and lifespan limits would achieve in an ecology – they crowd out other entities, including natural persons.Maybe because incorporation is a superior form of organization, even in a free market?This seems to be the argument:Libertarians: Corporations are libertarian for x, y, and z in a free market.

    Socialists: Corporations are not libertarian because of x and z in today’s statist world.

    Libertarians: Corporations would likely be the dominate form of firm structure in a free market because of x, y an z.

    Socialists: Corporations would not exist at all because they are un-libertarian because of x and z in today’s statist world.

  • Published: December 11, 2008 8:26 AM

  • whittaker
  • “And why the hell should they be liable?”For the same reason anyone else is liable, directly or vicariously, for negligent or intentional torts.If you’re arguing for the abolition of tort law, or just of vicarious liability in general, that would be a separate subject, having nothing to do specifically with corporations.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 8:32 AM

  • JA
  • but the primary reason people incorporate a business is to limit liability.I also would like to see a citation for this claim.This claim completely disregards the other benefits of incorporation…Selling shares to finance, selling the business, adding new investors, allowing for shareholders to die or sell off their part of the business, etc.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 8:46 AM

  • Dick Fox
  • JA,I assume from your posts that as long as it is a creation of government it is ok. There does not need to be any tangible existence.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 8:57 AM

  • whittaker
  • TokyoTom,Many thanks for the links. I now have my homework assignment for tonight.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 9:06 AM

  • JA
  • I assume from your posts that as long as it is a creation of government it is ok.Not even close. I dispute that “corporations = government creation” simply because they are registered by the State.The corporate form, like families and marriages, pre-exists prior to the state as a nexus of voluntary relationships.That the State registers and regulates this voluntary organizational form is the problem with the state, not the form itself.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 9:11 AM

  • fundamentalist
  • whittaker: “For the same reason anyone else is liable, directly or vicariously, for negligent or intentional torts.”Kinsella has already established that the master is responsible for the actions of his servant, so corporations are responsible for employees. Anti-corps want the responbibility to go even further to the stockholders. But why stop there? Why not make the customers responsible too? And let’s throw in the bond holders. Then let’s add the suppliers. How about the relatives of stock and bond holders?Of course I’m being ridiculous. My point is where do you draw the line of responsibility for the actions of coroporate employees? Stopping with the stockholders is an arbitrary judgement. You need some principle that can delineate who is responsible for the actions of another. Traditionally, that line is drawn where control of the actions of the other party ends. If I don’t control the actions of another then I’m not responsible for his actions. This principle is most clearly seen with children. Parents are responsible and can be held liable for the actions of their children up to a general age of the children. After the children reach that age, the parent is no longer responsible because they no longer control the child.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 9:47 AM

  • J Cortez
  • Shareholders responsible?Why?Unless they are officers active in the corporation’s day to day operations and have stock, there is no reason for a shareholder to be liable.Most shareholders in IBM, Google, Starbucks, Pepsi and Toyota have no idea what the day to day operations are because they aren’t involved in any way outside of providing capital. How could someone, having not acted in and without any knowledge of, an accident/incident be held responsible?

    If Corporation XYZ has a faulty factory floor, it is human resources, the factory manager and the CEO that is liable, not the shareholder.

  • Published: December 11, 2008 10:12 AM

  • TokyoTom
  • Stephan, I had two earlier posts linking back to my posts on the other thread, neither of which has come through (too many links?).Let me try once once more, without links.My last post responded to you fully; I look forward to your further comments.My closing comment was as follows:

    “The grant of limited liability to involuntary creditors cannot be justified on libertarian grounds, and arguments I have noted regarding efficiency, moral hazards, equity, the disincentives for shareholders to closely monitor firms, the relative freedom of managers and executives to loot, and the related rise of citizen pressure groups to seek to have governments provide checks are all substantial and important.

    “While there are many cases where injured persons are compensated, there are many cases where corporations have generated widespread risks and failed, leaving countless others holding the bag, while investors (and managers) may have profited and then exited without substantial loss. The limited liability grant actually encourages such behavior.

    “You say that, if victims could “sue shareholders individually”, in which case “shareholders could simply purchase shareholder-liability-insurance, no biggie”. I heartily agree – a system of pro rata shareholder unlimited liability would work (as one of the law journal articles argues), as well as being more just. I appreciate the concession – so [why] haven`t] you stopped fighting this point?

    Regards.

  • Published: December 11, 2008 10:15 AM

  • Stephan KinsellaAuthor Profile Page
  • Matias Forss:

    On the question of respondeat superior: without statutory or common law enforcement of this doctrine, most FedEx employees would probably want some kind of protection from liability as part of their contract of employment, just so they wouldn’t be enslaved for their debts if they happen to run over someone.

    Agreed. But this would not imply shareholder liability.

    MHC
    #

    TokyoTom: “I’m just an anti-uncontracted-for-limited-liaibility-for-torts” type. There are plenty of my type in the world of corporate lawyers, as I noted on the other thread.”

    The question is why and when shareholders should be vicariously liable for actions of employees. If you can show they should be, then their liabiltiy should not be “limited”. but until you can show this, limited liability can be viewed as the refusal to impose liabiilty where there is none.

    Here are a few links on law and economics to aid those who want to refer to the academic discussion in the legal profession:

    Be careful of mainstream reasoning by law professors–they almost always build their case by assuming the validity of a host of positivist and mainstream (and not libertarian) assumptions.

     

    P.M.Lawrence:

    ‘Another very common criticism is that corporations receive special privileges from the state–“limited liability”. This concerns two basic issues: the limited liability of shareholders for contractual liability of the corporation; and for torts committed by employees of the corporation.’

    Bluntly, that’s wrong, which makes this a straw man. Those are the two main special privileges in ordinary circumstances, deplorable to the extent that they are sustained by such intervention,

    I don’t see why they’re “deplorable”. That’s question-begging.

    but there is another, even deeper special privilege: entity status, which (short of a judge finding “failure of substratum”) gives a corporation a quasi-life of its own and allows it freedom from the inherent internal limits that other kinds of firm face – even partnerships that achieve Hessen-style limited liability or limited liability in other ways (elsewhere I describe how silent or sleeping partners can lie low, so achieving de facto limited liability). Without those limits, they gain the sort of advantage that an animal without size and lifespan limits would achieve in an ecology – they crowd out other entities, including natural persons.

    Hessen and I are against the entity theory: see pp. 19-21 of the book that I linked/cited earlier.

    BTW my view is that the primary reason people like the corporate form is limited liabilty for *contractual* debts of the company. And this is uncontroversial (or should be). If shareholders were liable only for torts, then this could be taken care of by an insurance policy, so would be no big deal.

    whittaker:

    “And why the hell should they be liable?”For the same reason anyone else is liable, directly or vicariously, for negligent or intentional torts.

    But under libertarianism A ought to be vicariously liable for B’s actions only if there is a good reason–A is a co-conspirator or joint actor, etc. It’s hard to find a good reason why a shareholder is vicariously liable.

    If you’re arguing for the abolition of tort law, or just of vicarious liability in general, that would be a separate subject, having nothing to do specifically with corporations.

    I’m arguing for a careful application of vicarious liability; and it has everything to do with the controversy over shareholder limited liability–for without vicarious liabiltiy, there is no way they’d be liable in the first place and you guys would have no basis for whining about limiting this non-existent liability.

    fundamentalist:

    whittaker: “For the same reason anyone else is liable, directly or vicariously, for negligent or intentional torts.”Kinsella has already established that the master is responsible for the actions of his servant, so corporations are responsible for employees.

    Well, my view is that a master is responsible for actions of his servant *that he directs him to do*. I think a case can be made that in some cases he is liable for negligence of the servant committed during the course of his employ, but this would be a limited doctrine (and in any event needs to be justified by a careful treatment of this issue–using the type of causal analysis Tinsley and I laid out in our Causation and Aggression paper). But this would not ensnare the shareholders, as far as I can tell.

    Anti-corps want the responbibility to go even further to the stockholders. But why stop there? Why not make the customers responsible too? And let’s throw in the bond holders. Then let’s add the suppliers. How about the relatives of stock and bond holders?

    Great point.

  • Published: December 11, 2008 10:17 AM

  • Stephan KinsellaAuthor Profile Page
  • TokyoTom:

    “You say that, if victims could “sue shareholders individually”, in which case “shareholders could simply purchase shareholder-liability-insurance, no biggie”. I heartily agree – a system of pro rata shareholder unlimited liability would work (as one of the law journal articles argues), as well as being more just. I appreciate the concession – so [why] haven`t] you stopped fighting this point?

     

    But this is damaging to your side, not mine. The anti-corporatists jump up and down about shareholder limited liability. If it’s for contracts, this concern is misguided. If it’s about torts, then the criticism groundlessly assumes shareholders should be liable for torts in the first place. You assume that without this limited liability corps could not exist. But this is wrong. Even if you imposed this liability, it could be gotten rid of with insurance. The corporation’s insurnace policy would just cover not only the company and officers, but also shareholders. Then life would go on. This shows that the concern over limited liability is a canard.

  • Published: December 11, 2008 10:33 AM

  • jp
  • Kinsella: “shareholders are not necessarily investors”?
    I almost stopped reading after that comment. What are they then, consumers of shares? Just because you buy a share in the secondary market doesn’t mean you’re not investing.Hessen: “Creditors, however, are not obligated to accept limited liability.”In many cases they are. For instance, when the state legislates that all banks must adopt limited liability, depositors and lenders are obligated to accept LL.

    see comment here: http://blog.mises.org/archives/009070.asp#comment-483017

  • Published: December 11, 2008 11:04 AM

  • Stephan KinsellaAuthor Profile Page
  • jp:”Kinsella: “shareholders are not necessarily investors”?
    I almost stopped reading after that comment. What are they then, consumers of shares? Just because you buy a share in the secondary market doesn’t mean you’re not investing.”They are holders of shares–people who have certain rights with respect to a corporation. They may have been given the share as a gift–are they inevstors then?

    If they buy it from an existing shareholder sure they are investors–but the point is they never contributed money to the corporation (which is what I thought was supposed to be the significance of anti-corpos calling them “invstors”–implying they are liable for the company’s actions b/c they aided and abetted them by giving them money).

    “Hessen: “Creditors, however, are not obligated to accept limited liability.”

    In many cases they are. For instance, when the state legislates that all banks must adopt limited liability, depositors and lenders are obligated to accept LL.”

    In many cases, a bank will require the president or major shareholder to personally guarantee a loan.

  • Published: December 11, 2008 11:17 AM

  • Nick Bradley
  • I know this is about limited liability, but would large corporations even exist (or be a little more than a rarity) if it weren’t for access to centralized credit?As Jörg Guido Hülsmann pointed out in “Deflation and Liberty”, financing must come from private savings in a non-Fractional Reserve Banking system.Large (and even medium)-sized corporations depend on access to centralized credit for their existence, and it is unclear how their operations would be financed in a free market banking system.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 11:40 AM

  • Nick Bradley
  • I know this is about limited liability, but would large corporations even exist (or be a little more than a rarity) if it weren’t for access to centralized credit?As Jörg Guido Hülsmann pointed out in “Deflation and Liberty”, financing must come from private savings in a non-Fractional Reserve Banking system.Large (and even medium)-sized corporations depend on access to centralized credit for their existence, and it is unclear how their operations would be financed in a free market banking system.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 11:47 AM

  • Nick Bradley
  • I know this is about limited liability, but would large corporations even exist (or be a little more than a rarity) if it weren’t for access to centralized credit?As Jörg Guido Hülsmann pointed out in “Deflation and Liberty”, financing must come from private savings in a non-Fractional Reserve Banking system.Large (and even medium)-sized corporations depend on access to centralized credit for their existence, and it is unclear how their operations would be financed in a free market banking system.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 11:48 AM

  • whittaker
  • Mr. Kinsella,I’m not sure whether we really disagree on substance, or just on priorities and procedure, but I feel compelled to respond to some of your points.”libertarians who claim that limited liability for torts is a state privilege have the burden of proving that shareholders should be liable for torts committed by employees of a company the shareholder owns a share in–and to show why creditors, suppliers, employees, and other “aiders and abetters” are not liable.”Books have been written about this sort of thing. My concern is over the exemption from the normal rules that corporations enjoy.

    Let me ask you this. Suppose that, as a result of my intensive lobbying, the legislature passes a law that persons whose names begin with “Wh” are exempt from the normal rules of evidence, and that anything they say in court is to be taken at face value, with no cross-examination or contradiction allowed. Is the burden of proof now on YOU, a non-Wh person, to analyze the entire law of evidence from a libertarian viewpoint, before maintaining that my narrowly tailored exemption is unjust?

    Your (and Hessen’s) defense of limited liability seems to boil down to saying “it does no harm” or “any harm it does is minor”. IMO this is not a good enough justification for a statute, especially one that runs to thousands of pages. In Pennsylvania, the law of corporations occupies one title of the state statutes (3 volumes, approximately 2000 pages total). This does not include court cases, regulations, treatises, forms or law review articles, and is ONLY for Pennsylvania. Why does it take such massive state intervention simply to make the point that people can voluntarily form associations in any way they wish?

  • Published: December 11, 2008 12:04 PM

  • JA
  • Why does it take such massive state intervention simply to make the point that people can voluntarily form associations in any way they wish?Why does family law? Because “families” are creations of the state?
  • Published: December 11, 2008 12:09 PM

  • whittaker
  • fundamentalist:”You need some principle that can delineate who is responsible for the actions of another. Traditionally, that line is drawn where control of the actions of the other party ends. If I don’t control the actions of another then I’m not responsible for his actions.”I believe that corporate personhood and limited liability encourages shareholders to *disavow* the control of management that they should rightfully have, for the purpose of gaining financial returns without the moral restraints that would normally operate on businesses. I think that these are the root causes of the irresponsible behavior of which the Naderites, et al. complain.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 12:13 PM

  • Mike
  • “If they buy it from an existing shareholder sure they are investors–but the point is they never contributed money to the corporation (which is what I thought was supposed to be the significance of anti-corpos calling them “invstors”–implying they are liable for the company’s actions b/c they aided and abetted them by giving them money).”I think you were misreading the complaint, then. The common understanding is that “the corporation” is the shareholders. I think you’ve made a strong case that that reading is (at least somewhat) lacking, but if someone asserts that point, they would not describe an investor as “giving money to” the corporation. When you buy a pair of shoes, you don’t give money to your shoes.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 12:14 PM

  • whittaker
  • “Why does it take such massive state intervention simply to make the point that people can voluntarily form associations in any way they wish?Why does family law? Because “families” are creations of the state?”It doesn’t, really. I would be fine with repealing most of family law as well.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 12:16 PM

  • JA
  • I would be fine with repealing most of family law as well.Would this repeal erase “families” from existance then?
  • Published: December 11, 2008 12:18 PM

  • Inquisitor
  • If shareholders are liable, why not customers? Creditors? Suppliers? Distributors? Unions? Etc. As Kinsella notes, they are as vital to a firm as it’s more or less passive shareholders…
  • Published: December 11, 2008 12:19 PM

  • whittaker
  • “I would be fine with repealing most of family law as well.Would this repeal erase “families” from existance then?”No.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 12:32 PM

  • fundamentalist
  • Whittaker: “I believe that corporate personhood and limited liability encourages shareholders to *disavow* the control of management that they should rightfully have…”The control of management is specified in the stock purchase agreement. It’s not a matter of what should they have, but what they have agreed to in the contract. The sanctity of contract is important. Stockholders have agree to limit their control to electing board members. Lack of control means lack of ownership, too, so stockholders should not be called owners.Whittaker: “I think that these are the root causes of the irresponsible behavior of which the Naderites, et al. complain.”The root causes of irresponsible behavior result from the nature of mankind, not from the structure of society or of business. You can get rid of all corporations and you won’t see a diminution of irresponsible behavior at all because it has nothing to do with the corporation and everything to do with human nature.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 1:48 PM

  • Mike
  • “If shareholders are liable, why not customers? Creditors? Suppliers? Distributors? Unions? Etc. As Kinsella notes, they are as vital to a firm as it’s more or less passive shareholders…”The difference, I think, is ownership. Stephan was right when he defined ownership as “right to control,” but wrong, I think, if he is conflating that with “ability to control.” If I own my house, I have a right to control it. I can paint it yellow, or install windows or knock it down if I want to. If you are my neighbor, you might have some (very limited) ability to control my actions, by applying social pressure, or refusing to do business with me if I paint my house a color you don’t like. But ultimately the right to make those decisions is mine and mine alone. So there’s a difference between the contractually guaranteed right to control a resource (like that of the executives or employees of the corporation) and the ability to indirectly pressure them to control resources in a certain way (like that of customers).Of course, Stephan is right that customers may have certain contractual guarantees, but this is irrelevant. Their right of contract is independent of their status as a customer.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 2:22 PM

  • Mike
  • “The control of management is specified in the stock purchase agreement. It’s not a matter of what should they have, but what they have agreed to in the contract. The sanctity of contract is important. Stockholders have agree to limit their control to electing board members. Lack of control means lack of ownership, too, so stockholders should not be called owners. “But they do have some degree of control, as you yourself just admitted. Shareholders elect the board, board members appoint the CEO, and the CEO runs the company. Sure, it’s limited, far removed control, but it is contractually guaranteed control, which is clearly very different from the type of control customers or non-controlling creditors have. So, I’m not sure we should be so quick to dismiss the idea of the shareholder as owner.Of course, there do exist companies with non-controlling shareholders. Obviously, this would be a different scenario.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 2:33 PM

  • Stephan KinsellaAuthor Profile Page
  • Mike: “But they do have some degree of control, as you yourself just admitted. Shareholders elect the board, board members appoint the CEO, and the CEO runs the company. Sure, it’s limited, far removed control, but it is contractually guaranteed control, which is clearly very different from the type of control customers or non-controlling creditors have. So, I’m not sure we should be so quick to dismiss the idea of the shareholder as owner.”Of course, there do exist companies with non-controlling shareholders. Obviously, this would be a different scenario.”The problem is the anticorpos have no clear theory of causation or responsibility, so they cannot clearly explain exactly what it is about being shareholder that makes them vicariously responsible for the actions of employees. Thus they rely on the state’s classification of the shareholders as “the owners”–and on an inchoate, simplistic, implicit theory that “owners are responsible for any harm done using property they own”.This will not do. A shareholder is someone how (a) has the right to vote for directors; and (b) a contractual right to receive dividends IF the board decides to pay them, and (c) a contractual right to receive a share of the assets of the corporation upon its liquidation. And sometimes, (d) they gave money to the corporoation by buying shares from them.

    Which of these characteristics implies responsibilty for acts of employees? If it’s (a), what about non-voting shareholders–shareholders who have no right to vote (these do exist), or who choose not to? Or who voted for a director who lost? If it’s (b) or (c)–but lots of people have rights to receive money or property from the company–creditors and vendors and employees all do. What about (d)–but lots of people give money or other benefits to the corporation: customers, even employees. So is everyone in the world liable for the actions of Wal-Mart? We’re all “stakeholders” now.

  • Published: December 11, 2008 3:18 PM

  • Stephan KinsellaAuthor Profile Page
  • whittaker”””libertarians who claim that limited liability for torts is a state privilege have the burden of proving that shareholders should be liable for torts committed by employees of a company the shareholder owns a share in–and to show why creditors, suppliers, employees, and other “aiders and abetters” are not liable.””Books have been written about this sort of thing.”Are any based on a well-developed, sound, libertarian-compatible theory of causation?

    “Your (and Hessen’s) defense of limited liability seems to boil down to saying “it does no harm” or “any harm it does is minor”. IMO this is not a good enough justification for a statute,”

    I konw. The statute is not justified. I have been explicit about this. It is just that your criticism of “limited liability” is a *general* one that would apply to the free market too, and is therefore worng.

  • Published: December 11, 2008 3:29 PM

  • Stephan KinsellaAuthor Profile Page
  • whittaker”””libertarians who claim that limited liability for torts is a state privilege have the burden of proving that shareholders should be liable for torts committed by employees of a company the shareholder owns a share in–and to show why creditors, suppliers, employees, and other “aiders and abetters” are not liable.””Books have been written about this sort of thing.”Are any based on a well-developed, sound, libertarian-compatible theory of causation?

    “Your (and Hessen’s) defense of limited liability seems to boil down to saying “it does no harm” or “any harm it does is minor”. IMO this is not a good enough justification for a statute,”

    I konw. The statute is not justified. I have been explicit about this. It is just that your criticism of “limited liability” is a *general* one that would apply to the free market too, and is therefore worng.

  • Published: December 11, 2008 3:29 PM

  • fundamentalist
  • Mike: “But they do have some degree of control…Sure, it’s limited, far removed control, but it is contractually guaranteed control, which is clearly very different from the type of control customers or non-controlling creditors have.”Exactly! Now we’re getting to some principles. Customers and non-controlling creditors have no liabilities because they have no control. Now, should the stockholders have unlimited liabilities even though they have very limited control? Or should the liability be proportional to the control? In other words, doesn’t limited control suggested limited liability?
  • Published: December 11, 2008 3:41 PM

  • Mike
  • “The problem is the anticorpos have no clear theory of causation or responsibility, so they cannot clearly explain exactly what it is about being shareholder that makes them vicariously responsible for the actions of employees. Thus they rely on the state’s classification of the shareholders as “the owners”–and on an inchoate, simplistic, implicit theory that “owners are responsible for any harm done using property they own”.”Well, sure, lots of people make lots of silly arguments, but I didn’t make any of those arguments, so when you’re analyzing my claims, please try to stick to debating me, and not the “anticorpo” boogeyman in the other room. Owners are obviously not always responsible for what someone else does with their property, but in certain cases they are, whether they instructed them to do so or not.”This will not do. A shareholder is someone how (a) has the right to vote for directors; and (b) a contractual right to receive dividends IF the board decides to pay them, and (c) a contractual right to receive a share of the assets of the corporation upon its liquidation. And sometimes, (d) they gave money to the corporation by buying shares from them.Which of these characteristics implies responsibilty for acts of employees? If it’s (a), what about non-voting shareholders–shareholders who have no right to vote (these do exist), or who choose not to? Or who voted for a director who lost? If it’s (b) or (c)–but lots of people have rights to receive money or property from the company–creditors and vendors and employees all do. What about (d)–but lots of people give money or other benefits to the corporation: customers, even employees. So is everyone in the world liable for the actions of Wal-Mart? We’re all “stakeholders” now.”

    I think it’s pretty clearly A. Like I said before, it’s limited control, and it’s far removed control, but it’s control nonetheless. And since it’s contractually guaranteed control, it is the control of an owner, not an outside agent.

    As for non-voting shareholders, I think I made myself pretty clear before, but I see little reason to hold them liable. Shareholders who choose not to vote, or vote for a director who lost, well, I think that’s a gray area, and I’m not sure.

    So, I’m not saying that shareholders should always be liable for torts, or even that they should usually be liable. I just don’t think they should be shielded from liability when the degree to which they do have control has negative repercussions on a third party.

    Yes, that control is limited. Yes, their liability is therefore limited. But it is limited by the degree of their control, not by arbitrary corporate fiat. And it is not necessarily limited to the price of their stock at a given moment. Probably in most cases it will not exceed that. Maybe in almost all cases. But if you want a 100% satisfaction guaranteed promise that you will not be held responsible for any torts at all, I think you have to cede even any at all control over your holdings. At that point, you are not an owner, but a creditor.

  • Published: December 11, 2008 4:03 PM

  • Mike
  • “But if you want a 100% satisfaction guaranteed promise that you will not be held responsible for any torts at all, I think you have to cede even any at all control over your holdings. At that point, you are not an owner, but a creditor.”Sorry, that should have read “But if you want a 100% satisfaction guaranteed promise that you will not be held responsible for any torts at all beyond the price of your holdings…”
  • Published: December 11, 2008 4:07 PM

  • Stephan KinsellaAuthor Profile Page
  • Mike:”Owners are obviously not always responsible for what someone else does with their property, but in certain cases they are, whether they instructed them to do so or not.”What cases should they be? What factors determine it? In Causation and Aggression, Pat Tinsley and I tried to set forth the way to approach this. What would your approach be?””This will not do. A shareholder is someone how (a) has the right to vote for directors; and (b) a contractual right to receive dividends IF the board decides to pay them, and (c) a contractual right to receive a share of the assets of the corporation upon its liquidation. And sometimes, (d) they gave money to the corporation by buying shares from them.

    “”Which of these characteristics implies responsibilty for acts of employees? If it’s (a), what about non-voting shareholders–shareholders who have no right to vote (these do exist), or who choose not to? Or who voted for a director who lost? If it’s (b) or (c)–but lots of people have rights to receive money or property from the company–creditors and vendors and employees all do. What about (d)–but lots of people give money or other benefits to the corporation: customers, even employees. So is everyone in the world liable for the actions of Wal-Mart? We’re all “stakeholders” now.”

    “I think it’s pretty clearly A. Like I said before, it’s limited control, and it’s far removed control, but it’s control nonetheless.”

    So, it’s not ownership, but the right-to-vote-for-directors that gives you liability? Is it merely *having* the right, or exercising it–that is, voting? It is the status of having-the-right-to-vote, or the act of voting? If the latter, is it voting for the person who was elected (successful voting), or any voting at all? Do you have to prove a shareholder voted to hold him liable? What if a secret ballot is used?

    “As for non-voting shareholders, I think I made myself pretty clear before, but I see little reason to hold them liable.”

    So then we both agree: there are a class of shareholders who ought not to be held liable. We just quibble over how large this class should be. But you would agree then that when the state grants *these* shareholders limited liabilit, it’s NOT a grant of privilege?

    “Shareholders who choose not to vote, or vote for a director who lost, well, I think that’s a gray area, and I’m not sure.”

    Ah.

    “So, I’m not saying that shareholders should always be liable for torts, or even that they should usually be liable.”

    Oh. So limited liability is not always a privilege, then?

    “I just don’t think they should be shielded from liability when the degree to which they do have control has negative repercussions on a third party.”

    But shareholders by definition are passive and basically only vote once a year or so for directors, who themesvels don’t even run teh company–they just appoint officers. Seems to me this is a class of people who are generally not liable. Oh, maybe in some exceptional case, but as a rule–not liable. So then you agree that limited liability is not a privilege?

    “if you want a 100% satisfaction guaranteed promise that you will not be held responsible for any torts at all, I think you have to cede even any at all control over your holdings. At that point, you are not an owner, but a creditor.”

    I see, I see, the contours of your theory are developing before our eyes. Yet you were so opinionated before, even before you had even even this much of an embryonic theory worked out. Interesting.

  • Published: December 11, 2008 4:19 PM

  • Mike
  • “So, it’s not ownership, but the right-to-vote-for-directors that gives you liability?”This distinction makes no sense to me. You yourself said “ownership is the right to control a resource.” The right to vote for directors is a form of the right to control the resources of the corporation. So the right to vote for directors is ownership. I feel like we just keep going in circles on this.”It is the status of having-the-right-to-vote, or the act of voting? If the latter, is it voting for the person who was elected (successful voting), or any voting at all? Do you have to prove a shareholder voted to hold him liable? What if a secret ballot is used?”I’m not sure. I’m leaning toward the status of having that right. I’m also not sure that shielding the decisions of controlling agents behind numerous levels of bureaucracy eliminates your responsibility for those decisions.

    Let’s consider this: A group of 101 investors decides to pool their resources together and build a power plant. But, instead of forming a board and appointing a CEO, they run their company democratically, voting on every major decision (yes, I understand the irony of invoking a co-op style of management for this debate, but bear with me). For all decisions, majority rules, and policy is determined by a vote of 50%+1.

    At some point, a vote comes up on safety standards. Rather than install up-to-date safety equipment, they decide to cut costs. Months later, due to this negligence, the factory explodes, taking out a dozen homes with it. The damages far exceed the capital holdings of the company.

    So, who is liable? Oh, and just to further complicate matters, all ballots are secret.

    Now, instead of voting on decisions directly, say the shareholders decide to vote for one person per decision. It can be one of their own or not, it doesn’t really matter. Are they less liable now? Why? What if they vote for one person to make all the decisions? They can fire him at any point, and he has to report every decision to them. They don’t officially have to approve the decision, but they can fire him before he implements it. Are they liable now? What if he doesn’t have to report his decisions? What if they vote to keep him in for a year at a time, and can’t fire him until his tenure is up. Now they’re not liable?

    Now say they vote for someone to appoint the person who makes the decisions. Surely this is far removed enough. Now they can’t be held responsible.

    But it’s all the same. They have the ultimate control. They have just delegated through enough channels to have plausible deniability.

    Now, I understand that this is not typically how corporations work. This is an extreme example. But I still think it needs to be addressed if we are to form a coherent analysis of limited liability.

    As for this:

    “I see, I see, the contours of your theory are developing before our eyes. Yet you were so opinionated before, even before you had even even this much of an embryonic theory worked out. Interesting.”

    Well, yeah. My theory is developing. I’m attempting to develop it through a dialogue. I’m sorry if I gave you some other impression, or if I came off as confrontational.

  • Published: December 11, 2008 4:50 PM

  • Mike
  • “Well, yeah. My theory is developing. I’m attempting to develop it through a dialogue. I’m sorry if I gave you some other impression, or if I came off as confrontational.”Oh, and I should add: “lol, internet.”
  • Published: December 11, 2008 5:01 PM

  • Mike
  • Or, to put it a much simpler way, with control comes responsibility, I think. Generally, this would mean shareholders are not responsible for the actions of corporate management or employees since their control is highly limited, but this is by no means set in stone. Not all corporations are created equal, I’m afraid.So if the question is “Is limited liability for torts a creation of the state?” I think the response has to be “It depends on what you mean by that.” If by “limited liability for torts” you mean “liability is limited to the degree of control,” then, no, limited liability is not a creation of the state. If it means “liability limited to ammount X for factors that were within your control,” then I think it is.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 7:01 PM

  • Stephan Kinsella
  • Mike:””So, it’s not ownership, but the right-to-vote-for-directors that gives you liability?””This distinction makes no sense to me. You yourself said “ownership is the right to control a resource.” The right to vote for directors is a form of the right to control the resources of the corporation.”You (and the state) are the ones calling shareholders “owners’. I’m just focusing on the reality of what their status means.

    “So the right to vote for directors is ownership.”

    Really! So you are an owner of America, since you can vote for Prsident! Congrats! You are now responsible for what his military does, since you are the owner.

    “”It is the status of having-the-right-to-vote, or the act of voting? If the latter, is it voting for the person who was elected (successful voting), or any voting at all? Do you have to prove a shareholder voted to hold him liable? What if a secret ballot is used?”

    “I’m not sure. I’m leaning toward the status of having that right.”

    Wow.

    “Now, I understand that this is not typically how corporations work.”

    Really!

  • Published: December 11, 2008 7:04 PM

  • stephan Kinsella
  • Mike:”with control comes responsibility, I think.”Are you sure? Is it the *exercise* of control (that is: action), or merely having the *right* to control, that has responsibility “attach” to it? Think about this carefully…”Generally, this would mean shareholders are not responsible for the actions of corporate management or employees since their control is highly limited, but this is by no means set in stone. Not all corporations are created equal, I’m afraid.”

    I am not sure you really have any clue what you are talking about. I don’t mean offense, but you sound like a college freshman with no experience in business pontificating on how they are and should be run. It’s okay to be a naif. But why naifs are determined to have vociferous opinions about matters they know little about, is a mystery.

  • Published: December 11, 2008 7:12 PM

  • Mike
  • “I am not sure you really have any clue what you are talking about. I don’t mean offense, but you sound like a college freshman with no experience in business pontificating on how they are and should be run. It’s okay to be a naif. But why naifs are determined to have vociferous opinions about matters they know little about, is a mystery.”Okey dokey. I’m trying to engage in a discussion, you resort to insults and name calling. I’m being immature. I get it.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 7:21 PM

  • Mike
  • “Are you sure? Is it the *exercise* of control (that is: action), or merely having the *right* to control, that has responsibility “attach” to it? Think about this carefully…”Say I build a house on the edge of a cliff. After a few years, I slack on the upkeep, and the house starts to get crummy. I want to sell the house to you, and you see an opportunity in a fixer upper, so you want to buy. Before I sell, though, I say “You know, the house is on the edge of the cliff. If you don’t fix it soon, it will crumble and fall onto the town below.” You say, “Don’t worry, it’ll be my house, and my responsibility. I’ll fix it.” We complete the sale, and I go on my way.When it comes time to actually make the repairs, though, you get lazy, and put it off. After a few weeks, the house crumbles onto the town below, killing someone.In this situation, you had the right to control the house, but you did not exercise it. Yet, are you not liable for the damage?
  • Published: December 11, 2008 7:38 PM

  • Mike
  • Or should I refrain from asking questions like this since, after all, I’ve never built a house?
  • Published: December 11, 2008 7:54 PM

  • Chad Rushing
  • Mike: “Okey dokey. I’m trying to engage in a discussion, you resort to insults and name calling. I’m being immature. I get it.”As long as someone is trying to engage in honest discussion and is open to correcting any weaknesses his viewpoints may have if given sufficiently clear reasons for doing so, I think that person should be given the benefit of the doubt and be engaged in instructive debate rather than be subjected to derision.After all, all of us started out as totally ignorant babies, and we largely have the knowledge we do because of the passive input (literature) or the active input (instruction or debate) of our intellectual betters who were patient enough to try to teach others what they had learned themselves, something for which we should all be immensely grateful.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 8:43 PM

  • MJP
  • “Really! So you are an owner of America, since you can vote for Prsident! Congrats! You are now responsible for what his military does, since you are the owner.”False analogy. The “right” to vote for President was foisted upon me without my consent. The shareholder, on the other hand, actively purchased the right to vote in the corporation. The only case in which he might have a credible claim to have had that right foisted upon him is in the unfree market!
  • Published: December 11, 2008 9:16 PM

  • TokyoTom
  • Stephan, since you haven’t responded on the other thread I am copying here my last post from there:http://blog.mises.org/archives/009070.asp#comment-483223Stephan, allow me to clarify further:TT: “Is there any libertarian argument that the state OUGHT to step in and allow investors to unilaterally shift a portion of the risks of their business venture to others who might be damaged by the activities of the business?”

    SK: No, and the state should not exist. But people criticize corporations as being *mere* creatures of the state on the grounds that the state gives them privileges that would not exist in the free market.

    TT: My point is simply that there is no libertarian argument that the state OUGHT to step in and allow investors to unilaterally shift a portion of the risks of their business venture to others who might be damaged by the activities of the business. I’m glad that you agree, and am puzzled that you do not acknowledge that the state grant of limited liability to investors (and to transferees of such investors) in corporations constitutes an uncontracted-for shifting of risks to investors from victims of corporate torts.

    TT: “Without the act of state in creating limited liability for shareholders, such limited liability would not exist – except perhaps vis-a-vis creditors and business counterparties who might otherwise agree to limited their claims to the assets of the company, in exchange for agreed methods of risk control or higher prices. However, such limited liability could not otherwise exist as to Involuntary (or “tort”) creditors who without their consent are injured by the corporation, who have not agreed to assume the risk of corporate insolvency and shareholders’ limited liability, and who have neither received ex ante compensation for doing so nor had the opportunity to bargain for contractual safeguards.”

    SK: Again: the question is, absent the state, should shareholders be vicariously liable for torts committed by employees, or not? The presumption is they should not, since they did not commit the acts–unless you can come up with a sound argument for why they should (and pointing to the way it’s been done before doesn’t cut it).

    TT: Stephan, again you refuse to actually advance a justification for the government grant of limited liability to shareholders (indeed, you concede that, there is no libertarian argument for such a state grant), but simply argue for the status quo, on the grounds that shareholders don’t typically themselves do not commit the torts.
    If there is no libertarian grounds for the use of government fiat to limit the liability that shareholders bear for the risks that the activities of the business might injure others, then surely the “presumption” you offer should be reversed, and you should advance a case that whether those who are injured by business enterprises should justly be forced to assume the risk that their ability to make claims against the assets of the business owners depends upon whether the business happens to be a sole proprietorship, a partnership or limited liability corporation.

    You state that “the question is, absent the state, should shareholders be vicariously liable for torts committed by employees, or not?”, presume that shareholders should have no liability as principals for acts of the corporation “because they did not commit the acts”, and then ask me to advance arguments that shareholders should be held responsible for the acts of corporations. I disagree, note that your formulations dodge a number of issues, and note further that you have completely ignored the arguments that I and others have advanced for unlimited shareholder liability (prominently, the two Yale LJ articles and the Vanderbilt L Rev article).

    Time for you to start doing some of the work.

    TT: “My point is that limited liability lets investors entirely off the hook for damages that the wrongful acts of the corporation and its employees. While a few employees might individually be held responsible for their actions, this still may leave many injured persons uncompensated for injuries cause by a corporation’s business activities”

    SK: You are assuming the “business activities” are “the cause”. This is question begging.

    TT: Well said, Artful Dodger, but it’s not me who’s begging the questions. Putting aside (i) the question of the scope of vicarious liability WITHIN the firm and (ii) cases where there is a only one a single injured party and a single employee committing an unauthorized tort, it is undeniable that small, medium and large corporations have in the past and continue from time to time to commit large-scale torts – in the form of pollution, dumping of waste, defective products, other personal injuries, slander and the like – that arise directly from their business activities. In most such cases, no single individual tortfeasor within the corporation can be identified. Clearly, in some such cases a few employees might individually be held responsible for their actions, this still may leave many injured persons incompletely uncompensated for injuries caused by a corporation’s business activities.

    TT: “Before limited liability corporations were established, the common law doctrine of respondeat superior required investors to bear responsibility for the acts of a business, just as individual proprietors and partnerships remain so liable today.”

    SK: Why should they be? Because the common law says so?

    TT: No; sole proprietors and partnerships have been and remain liable for the acts of a business because it is unjust to allow them to externalize a significant portion of the risks of their activities, while capturing the benefits of those risks. The state, by providing the corporate form, allows the externalization of such risks on a vast scale, and continues to do so by further making limited liability available for those who prefer to be taxed as partners. But to reverse the question, perhaps you care to point to libertarian principles or a common law doctrines (which libertarians frequently point to as a valid basis for determining the scope of ownership rights and who should be responsible for injuries caused to others) that would justify a position that those who own and operate businesses ought NOT to be responsible for the damages those business activities cause, beyond the assets of the business?

    TT: “Again, you simply …. presume that the state action that leaves shareholders free to shift business risks to others is valid and justifiable. Even as you remain unwilling to make your case, I am happy to expand my argument that limited shareholder liability is an unlibertarian grant by the state to shareholders.”

    SK: You need to explain why shareholders should be liable. You keep calling them investors–shareholders are usually not investors.

    TT: Again, you are nonresponsive. Perhaps you should pick fewer nits and acknowledge the bigger picture. For small corporations, start-ups, and corporations raising capital, the shareholders typically are investors. Moreover, for small firms, closely-held firms (including large LBOs) and even for many large firms, there are major shareholders that are also clearly “owners”. You have advanced no libertarian or other argument that justifies limiting the liability of investors and owners at all for the torts of corporations; much less for your implied position that investors and owners should be able to freely slough-off any vicarious responsibility for damages to victims of corporate acts by the simple expedient of selling their shares to others (who, while they do not directly fund the company, are certainly investing in ownership of the same set of assets and liabilities as the initial investors).

    TT: “The chief point, of course, is that the creation by the state of corporations limits tort liability to individual tortfeasors”

    SK: It limits state-imposed vicarious tort liability. If the state stops taxing you, this is good, because it should not be taxing you in the first place. If the state stops imposing vicarious tort liability on shareholders, this is also good, if it should not be doing this in the first place. You seem to assume they should. why?

    TT: Where does “the state” impose vicarious tort liability? Respondeat superior is largely an old and evolving part of the common law. I don’t agree with all cases, but individual judgments are hardly the same as the state acting by law to free shareholders from liability above the amount they paid for the shares for the risks generated by corporate activities.

    TT: “This reduces the likelihood that victims will receive full compensation for corporate acts.”

    SK: If a FedEx driver negligently crashes into you, why arey ou calling it a “corporate act”? He was not directed to do this by FedEx, was he? Why is his negligence theirs?

    In any event–this whole critique is ridiculous. Whenever a corporation’s employee commits a tort, the victim is compensated by the corporation or its insurer. IT’s almost always irrelevant that he can’t sue shareholders individually. Even if they could, shareholders could simply purchase shareholder-liability-insurance, no biggie.

    TT: “Ridiculous”? Nonsense! There, are we even now?

    The grant of limited liability [against] involuntary creditors cannot be justified on libertarian grounds, and arguments I have noted regarding efficiency, moral hazards, equity, the disincentives for shareholders to closely monitor firms, the relative freedom of managers and executives to loot, and the related rise of citizen pressure groups to seek to have governments provide checks are all substantial and important.

    While there are many cases where injured persons are compensated, there are many cases where corporations have generated widespread risks and failed, leaving countless others holding the bag, while investors (and managers) may have profited and then exited without substantial loss. The limited liability grant actually encourages such behavior.

    You say that, if victims could “sue shareholders individually”, in which case “shareholders could simply purchase shareholder-liability-insurance, no biggie”. I heartily agree – a system of pro rata shareholder unlimited liability would work (as one of the law journal articles argues), as well as being more just. I appreciate the concession – so have you stopped fighting this point?

  • Published: December 11, 2008 9:26 PM

  • Stephan KinsellaAuthor Profile Page
  • TT: “Is there any libertarian argument that the state OUGHT to step in and allow investors to unilaterally shift a portion of the risks of their business venture to others who might be damaged by the activities of the business?”SK: No, and the state should not exist. But people criticize corporations as being *mere* creatures of the state on the grounds that the state gives them privileges that would not exist in the free market.

    TT: My point is simply that there is no libertarian argument that the state OUGHT to step in and allow investors to unilaterally shift a portion of the risks of their business venture to others who might be damaged by the activities of the business.

    Of course the state should not do anything. Who said they should? But you say “shift” here, which smuggles in your presumption that shareholders have a natural or default liability. If they don’t, there’s no “shift.” Nice try, though.

    I’m glad that you agree, and am puzzled that you do not acknowledge that the state grant of limited liability to investors (and to transferees of such investors) in corporations constitutes an uncontracted-for shifting of risks to investors from victims of corporate torts.

    To me, what is wrong with it is that the state steps in and monopolizes a field, as it has done with transportation, power, education, defense, justice, money. Yet, the criticism of the anti-industrialists is not this; it is a criticism of limited liability per se–a criticism which would apply against the private form too.

    TT: “Without the act of state in creating limited liability for shareholders, such limited liability would not exist – except perhaps vis-a-vis creditors and business counterparties who might otherwise agree to limited their claims to the assets of the company, in exchange for agreed methods of risk control or higher prices. However, such limited liability could not otherwise exist as to Involuntary (or “tort”) creditors who without their consent are injured by the corporation, who have not agreed to assume the risk of corporate insolvency and shareholders’ limited liability, and who have neither received ex ante compensation for doing so nor had the opportunity to bargain for contractual safeguards.”SK: Again: the question is, absent the state, should shareholders be vicariously liable for torts committed by employees, or not? The presumption is they should not, since they did not commit the acts–unless you can come up with a sound argument for why they should (and pointing to the way it’s been done before doesn’t cut it).

    TT: Stephan, again you refuse to actually advance a justification for the government grant of limited liability to shareholders (indeed, you concede that, there is no libertarian argument for such a state grant), but simply argue for the status quo, on the grounds that shareholders don’t typically themselves do not commit the torts.

    As someone who opposes the state and favors for its abolution and destruction, it’s rich to say I am arguing for the status quo. All I am doing is pointing out flaws in your criticisms of limited liability. Your criticisms do not rest on the *state* doing it–they rest on your assumption that shareholders normally would or should have liability.

    If there is no libertarian grounds for the use of government fiat to limit the liability that shareholders bear for the risks that the activities of the business might injure others, then surely the “presumption” you offer should be reversed,

    No; because my presumption applies in a free market as well, even when there is no state involved.

    I disagree, note that your formulations dodge a number of issues, and note further that you have completely ignored the arguments that I and others have advanced for unlimited shareholder liability (prominently, the two Yale LJ articles and the Vanderbilt L Rev article).

    As a libertarian, I don’t think the positivist arguments of some mainstream law profs are going to be that mind-blowing.

    it is undeniable that small, medium and large corporations have in the past and continue from time to time to commit large-scale torts – in the form of pollution, dumping of waste, defective products, other personal injuries, slander and the like

     

    All these actions are done by individuals–and if done as decisions of the managers, then they and the corporate assets probably ought to be liable. But why the shareholders, if they didnt make this decision?

    – that arise directly from their business activities. In most such cases, no single individual tortfeasor within the corporation can be identified.

    Sure they can. If it’s a tort, then someone decided to do it–the directors, CEO, whatever.

    Clearly, in some such cases a few employees might individually be held responsible for their actions, this still may leave many injured persons incompletely uncompensated for injuries caused by a corporation’s business activities.

    If you’re going to just posit that the corporation “caused” it I will posit right back that per assumption we can identify the culpable individuals. But it will almost never be the shareholders.

    SK: You need to explain why shareholders should be liable. You keep calling them investors–shareholders are usually not investors.TT: Again, you are nonresponsive. Perhaps you should pick fewer nits and acknowledge the bigger picture.

    I dont tink it’s a nit. I assume you call them investors since you think giving money to the company is some kind of aiding and abetting that helps make them responsible. I’m pointing out they are not necessaril investors in the corporation.

    For small corporations, start-ups, and corporations raising capital, the shareholders typically are investors.

    True. AS Hessen notes, the entity theory helps to insulate liabiltiy most egregiously in the close corporation case. Another strike against the fervor agains bigness.

    Moreover, for small firms, closely-held firms (including large LBOs) and even for many large firms, there are major shareholders that are also clearly “owners”.

    I don’t konw what proving ownership status does. So waht? I will grant you that in some cases some shareholder wields such influence and direction over the firm that he ought to be as culpable as management for actions he helps direct. So what? My point is that *merely being a shareholder* is not by itself sufficient to attribute liability.

    You have advanced no libertarian or other argument that justifies limiting the liability of investors and owners at all for the torts of corporations;

    I do not want to. I am in favor of a nuanced and fact-specific approach, as I laid out in my Causation piece w/ Tinsley. If you can show in a given case that a shareholder is causally responsible for torts of the corporation, get ‘im. I’m just saying you have not shown that merely being a shareholder makes this case. It takes something more.

    much less for your implied position that investors and owners should be able to freely slough-off any vicarious responsibility for damages to victims of corporate acts by the simple expedient of selling their shares to others (who, while they do not directly fund the company, are certainly investing in ownership of the same set of assets and liabilities as the initial investors).

    Saying they invest in liabilities is a bit of question-begging. The question is: does the status of a person as a shareholder–having certain dividend and liquidation and director-voting rights–make you liable for what the corporation does? I don’t rest my own conlcusions on whether the state “officially” classifies the shareholder “as an owner.” I’m looking at the functional reality of what they are and do.

    TT: Where does “the state” impose vicarious tort liability? Respondeat superior is largely an old and evolving part of the common law.

    Yes, and we are a new and modern creature called “libertarian,” not tradition- or state-law-worshipping positivists.

    You say that, if victims could “sue shareholders individually”, in which case “shareholders could simply purchase shareholder-liability-insurance, no biggie”. I heartily agree – a system of pro rata shareholder unlimited liability would work (as one of the law journal articles argues), as well as being more just. I appreciate the concession – so have you stopped fighting this point?

    It’s not a concession. It’s pointing out that this is just a red herring on your part. You guys throw up limited tort liability as if it’s some huge advantage given to corps that allows them to survive. It’s not a huge advantage b/c removing it really doesn’t affect victims;a nd imposing it can easily be handled with a slight change of the already-existing insurance coverage. If we did this, not much would change, but I’m sure the anti-industrialist types would find something else to yap about. You are not *really* concerned with this–it’s just one of an arsenal of arguments you whip out to attack industry and busienss and “bigness” and capitalism and whatnot.

  • Published: December 11, 2008 10:22 PM

  • stephan Kinsella
  • MJP:

    “Really! So you are an owner of America, since you can vote for Prsident! Congrats! You are now responsible for what his military does, since you are the owner.”False analogy. The “right” to vote for President was foisted upon me without my consent. The shareholder, on the other hand, actively purchased the right to vote in the corporation. The only case in which he might have a credible claim to have had that right foisted upon him is in the unfree market!

    So if my aunt dies and leaves me Exxon stock and I don’t know I own it, now I’m walking around carrying some spooky “liability”? Freaky!

  • Published: December 11, 2008 10:30 PM

  • Mike
  • “I don’t konw what proving ownership status does. So waht? I will grant you that in some cases some shareholder wields such influence and direction over the firm that he ought to be as culpable as management for actions he helps direct. So what? My point is that *merely being a shareholder* is not by itself sufficient to attribute liability.”Doesn’t sound so naive when you say it, huh?
  • Published: December 11, 2008 10:31 PM

  • Mike
  • Oh, please, Stephan. You’re a lawyer, you know how estate inheritance works.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 10:42 PM

  • Nathan Shepperd (scumble)
  • Stephan: “Hessen and I are against the entity theory”Well hang on a minute – If P.M. Lawrence has brought this up as more significant than limited liability in inflating the size of a corporation, saying that you don’t support this doesn’t really answer the point he made.
  • Published: December 12, 2008 4:12 AM

  • P.M.Lawrence
  • JA asks of my “Without those limits, they gain the sort of advantage that an animal without size and lifespan limits would achieve in an ecology – they crowd out other entities, including natural persons”, “Maybe because incorporation is a superior form of organization, even in a free market?“That is begging the question of whether they can exist, in a free market. The only sort that can, without state aid, is the sort that has its own internal dynamic, e.g. monasteries, sports clubs, etc. (that also answers his later claim that “[t]he corporate form, like families and marriages, pre-exists prior to the state as a nexus of voluntary relationships”.)Then he goes on to do some unjustified blanket categorising of people as Libertarians and Socialists according to their positions on the matter.Fundamentalist asks “My point is where do you draw the line of responsibility for the actions of coroporate employees? Stopping with the stockholders is an arbitrary judgement. You need some principle that can delineate who is responsible for the actions of another. Traditionally, that line is drawn where control of the actions of the other party ends. If I don’t control the actions of another then I’m not responsible for his actions.”

    I just answered this in a comment at the last Kinsella thread. If you were responsible and let go without passing responsibility to another who accepted it, responsibility stays with you. That also answers J Cortez and Inquisitor.

    Stephan Kinsella says of my “Those [the limited liability of shareholders for contractual liability of the corporation; and for torts committed by employees of the corporation] are the two main special privileges in ordinary circumstances, deplorable to the extent that they are sustained by such intervention”, ‘I don’t see why they’re “deplorable”. That’s question-begging.

    No, it isn’t question-begging, and if he had even bothered to read what he quoted he would have seen what was deplorable about it: “…to the extent that they are sustained by such [state] intervention”. Unless he thinks state privileges are OK?

    Stephan Kinsella writes “Well, my view is that a master is responsible for actions of his servant *that he directs him to do*. I think a case can be made that in some cases he is liable for negligence of the servant committed during the course of his employ, but this would be a limited doctrine (and in any event needs to be justified by a careful treatment of this issue–using the type of causal analysis Tinsley and I laid out in our Causation and Aggression paper). But this would not ensnare the shareholders, as far as I can tell…. The anti-corporatists jump up and down about shareholder limited liability. If it’s for contracts, this concern is misguided. If it’s about torts, then the criticism groundlessly assumes shareholders should be liable for torts in the first place.” See my reply to Fundamentalist for some grounds that certainly do apply to original investors, and arguably may pass to subsequent acquirers of their shares. ‘So if my aunt dies and leaves me Exxon stock and I don’t know I own it, now I’m walking around carrying some spooky “liability”?’ might be a case where responsibility did not pass – at any rate, until it did through some later action or inaction (nobody has to accept a bequest, say of a piece of land with a covenant requiring the owner to keep the lawn mowed, but he can’t take the bequest without the strings attached).

    Stephan Kinsella then ignores my further objections to artificial corporations, making observations that in fact apply to other less artificial structures as well – or even more closely.

    Anyhow, that means Stephan Kinsella is plain wrong when he asserts that “The problem is the anticorpos have no clear theory of causation or responsibility, so they cannot clearly explain exactly what it is about being shareholder that makes them vicariously responsible for the actions of employees.”, and what follows that passage. Did he bother asking for that, or did he just assume away any answer in advance?

    That’s also why there’s no “presumption” in the comment of TokyoTom’s of which Stephan Kinsella says ‘But you say “shift” here, which smuggles in your presumption that shareholders have a natural or default liability’. Stephan Kinsella is just assuming that there is a presumption TokyoTom is making, when he could simply have asked what grounds there were for that claim.

  • Published: December 13, 2008 12:29 AM

  • fundamentalist
  • P.M.Lawrence : “If you were responsible and let go without passing responsibility to another who accepted it, responsibility stays with you.”I agree completely. But stockholders never had the responsibility in the first place. Their first contact with the corporation was to buy stock and the contract in the purchase of that stock limited their responsibility from day one. Without responsibility there is no liability.The idea that liability falls on a person only to the degree that they control the situation and are therefore responsible is just plain common sense. I doubt that you could find a time in history where it wasn’t applied. It’s implied in the concept of justice. So for stockholders to be liable for the actions of executives, you would have to show that at some time the stockholders exercised control over the actions of employees, gave it up and failed to pass it on to someone else. But clearly stockholders never had any control whatsoever over employees at any time. Nevertheless, they did pass control over actions of employees to someone, the board of directors and management.
  • Published: December 13, 2008 7:25 AM

  • stephan Kinsella
  • Fundamentalist: “I agree completely. But stockholders never had the responsibility in the first place. Their first contact with the corporation was to buy stock and the contract in the purchase of that stock limited their responsibility from day one. Without responsibility there is no liability.The idea that liability falls on a person only to the degree that they control the situation and are therefore responsible is just plain common sense. I doubt that you could find a time in history where it wasn’t applied. It’s implied in the concept of justice. So for stockholders to be liable for the actions of executives, you would have to show that at some time the stockholders exercised control over the actions of employees, gave it up and failed to pass it on to someone else. But clearly stockholders never had any control whatsoever over employees at any time. Nevertheless, they did pass control over actions of employees to someone, the board of directors and management.”Good point. The doctrine of “piercing the corporate veil” actually gets to this somewhat (though it is muddled and confused due to the entity theory), e.g., this factor which can pierce the veil: “Was the corporation being used as a “façade” for dominant shareholder(s) personal dealings; Alter Ego Theory;”
  • Published: December 13, 2008 9:24 AM

  • post
  • “The idea that liability falls on a person only to the degree that they control the situation and are therefore responsible is just plain common sense.”No, thats not common sense but wishful thinking.
    You don’t have to be able to directly control someones actions to be responsible for his crimes. It’s enough if you are willingly and knowingly financing his crimes for you to be guilty of this crimes, too.Now come on, it’s plain simple:Everyone who is knowingly supporting a crime is responsible for that crime. In different ‘weight’ but he is responsible.

    Imagine yourself being in the second world war: If someone was financing the Nazi system knowing what they did how could someone say that that person was not also (partially) responsible for their crimes?

    Other example: If you sell someone a weapon in the knowledge, that he is executing innocent people and you are continuing this support you ARE supporting his crimes. Therefore you as a contractor are responsible for these crimes and therefor guilty.

    The same goes for investors in corporations: If corporations are known to be criminal organizations than every investor is becoming part of that organization, if he has knowledge of that crimes and continues to finance this organization.

    How to determine the guilt and appropriate punishment? Just have a look on Walter Blocks essay “Radical Libertarianism: Applying Libertarian Principles to Dealing with the Unjust Government”
    The same applies to “unjust corporations”.

    For the definition of guilt in such involvements and the appropriate measures it is very important that the accused person has knowledge of the criminal actions of his supported organizations.

    And no: Guilt by association does not apply. That would be unjust.
    Guilt by knowingly supporting (in whatever way) criminals and therefor become part of criminal organization applies.

  • Published: December 14, 2008 4:04 PM

  • post
  • @fundamentalist:Imagine there exists an executing device as a property of a corporation, which itself is financed by stockholders. This device is used as a means of executing regime opponents.The stockholders of that corporation in your opinion are not responsible if innocent people are getting killed by that device and they know of that fact? Because what?
    Because each one of them does not have the “power” to control the situation?
    So you mean it’s possible to justify crimes if only there are enough participants of said crime?And you call THAT common sense?

    Oh my…

    What difference is there between an employee of said corporation and a stockholder? None I say. Organizations cannot be defined by laws but by the actions of the persons that constitute them, So everyone who is acting in the name of a group and is accepted by the others (by their actions) is part of that group too and responsible for all their actions if he is knowing of them and supporting them.

    The same goes for the state.

    If one is not willing to apply the same critique to corporations as to the state one seems to be very much biased…

  • Published: December 14, 2008 4:15 PM

  • P.M.Lawrence
  • Fundamentalist agrees with my “If you were responsible and let go without passing responsibility to another who accepted it, responsibility stays with you”, but believes “But stockholders never had the responsibility in the first place. Their first contact with the corporation was to buy stock and the contract in the purchase of that stock limited their responsibility from day one.”Only, it didn’t, morally speaking (of course, that is just precisely what the legal structure does for them – which is the state assistance). If A sells B a dangerous dog and either doesn’t tell B or tells B “it’s dangerous, but it’s not your problem”, A is claiming a certain authority to waive responsibility. But A never had that authority, so either the responsibility stays with A (if, say, A didn’t tell B) or it passes to B.As for “…But clearly stockholders never had any control whatsoever over employees at any time. Nevertheless, they did pass control over actions of employees to someone, the board of directors and management.”Only, they kept back a degree of control over those, and – to the extent they surrendered it – they have the moral responsibility for turning those others loose without keeping more control.

    Post gets it (Kinsella probably does too, but hides it).

  • Published: December 14, 2008 7:49 PM

  • TokyoTom
  • Roger:Kinsella has already established that the master is responsible for the actions of his servant, so corporations are responsible for employees. Anti-corps want the responbibility to go even further to the stockholders. But why stop there? Why not make the customers responsible too? And let’s throw in the bond holders. Then let’s add the suppliers. How about the relatives of stock and bond holders?The corporation is a legal fiction. Are there any persons within it where the buck stops? Created in order to free investors from downside risks, the limited liability has removed incentives for investors to keep executives and managers under control and to monitor business risks. Although small corporations remain under investor control, the result has been the growth of large public companies that are owned but not controlled by shareholders, leaving discretion but limited downside risk to employees, managers and executives.Of course I’m being ridiculous. My point is where do you draw the line of responsibility for the actions of coroporate employees? Stopping with the stockholders is an arbitrary judgement. You need some principle that can delineate who is responsible for the actions of another. Traditionally, that line is drawn where control of the actions of the other party ends.

    As for line drawing, voluntary creditors are all able to investigate whom they deal with, and to negotiate risks and prices. Victims of torts are seldomly so situated. But the problem of corporations leaving real victims behind is precisely why governments have started to seek further pockets, such as lenders and suppliers (via Superfund laws, for example), to require firms to post bonds and maintain certain capital levels, and why governments have fallen to the temptation to heavily regulate “public” firms.

    As for what “tradition” was and where lines used to be drawn, surely you recognize that before limited liability corporations were established, investors had unlimited liability for losses – and risks for widespread torts were much lower? Unlimited shareholder liability was once more common than limited liability, and large markets like Lloyds until recently required that all Names bear unlimited liability for losses. It used to be that most small businesses and partnerships were structured with unlimited liability; now with LLCs and LLPs, there is a rush into structuring as limited members, precisely to limit liabilities.

  • Published: December 15, 2008 5:02 AM

  • fundamentalist
  • Post: “Post: “It’s enough if you are willingly and knowingly financing his crimes for you to be guilty of this crimes, too.”I agree completely. Any stockholder who knew of crimes that the corporations was committing is liable. But that would include very few stockholders.
  • Published: December 15, 2008 8:18 AM

  • TokyoTom
  • Stephan, I’ve responded on the initial post as well, but here’s a bit more on what you’ve written above.1. You: “But you say “shift” here, which smuggles in your presumption that shareholders have a natural or default liability. If they don’t, there’s no “shift.””I thinks it’s a fair and natural presumption that investors (as opposed to lenders, who have a claim only for interest and no residual claim for profits) have a natural default liability. This is still the case for sole proprietors and partnerships. “Shareholders” exist only because states created corporations as legal entities. Without such action, there would be at least one natural person to whom employees would have to answer and who would be responsible for risks posed by his business activities (loans and involuntary torts), up to the full amount of his personal assets.Yes, there is still the question of the range of vicarious liablity, but clearly even today business owners and partners are deliberately incorporating (using corporation, LLC and LLP forms) for the chief purpose of limiting personal liability for the acts of employees. And courts continue to pierce the corporate veil from time to time to reach shareholders as well.

    2. Me: “the state grant of limited liability to investors (and to transferees of such investors) in corporations constitutes an uncontracted-for shifting of risks to investors from victims of corporate torts.”

    You: “To me, what is wrong with it is that the state steps in and monopolizes a field, as it has done with transportation, power, education, defense, justice, money.”

    Me: I agree with what you think is wrong with state action, but in the case of granting the corporate form and granting limited liability, there have been a a number of pernicious consequences, one of which involves an externalization of risk of the kind I mention.

    This and other consequences all tend to encourage the further growth of the state, such as the pressures on the state to regulate corporations (with a vicous cycle of battles over control over government), and the use corporations as money and jobs banks.

    3. You: “As a libertarian, I don’t think the positivist arguments of some mainstream law profs are going to be that mind-blowing.”

    To each his own; they’re certainly relevant and provide useful background information.

    4. You: “All these actions are done by individuals–and if done as decisions of the managers, then they and the corporate assets probably ought to be liable. But why the shareholders, if they didnt make this decision?”

    In many cases the shareholders ARE in a position of control; should they be able to escape liability merely because they use the corporate form, as is the rule today? I think not.

    I agree that it is difficult to argue that minority and non-controlling shareholders in public firms bear any responsibility for acts of the corporation, since that was not a part of the bargain they understood that they were making when they acquired their shares and they largely have no actual ability to affect decisions that end up causing injury to others.

    5. Me: “In most such cases, no single individual tortfeasor within the corporation can be identified. Clearly, in some such cases a few employees might individually be held responsible for their actions, this still may leave many injured persons incompletely uncompensated for injuries caused by a corporation’s business activities.”

    You: “Sure they can. If it’s a tort, then someone decided to do it–the directors, CEO, whatever.

    “If you’re going to just posit that the corporation “caused” it I will posit right back that per assumption we can identify the culpable individuals. But it will almost never be the shareholders.”

    6: You: “I dont tink it’s a nit. I assume you call them investors since you think giving money to the company is some kind of aiding and abetting that helps make them responsible. I’m pointing out they are not necessaril investors in the corporation.”
    Me: Stephan, I’m only discussing the difference a shareholder and an investor because you seem to think it’s importance. Anyone who acquires a newly issued share is an investor; anyone who buys one on a market is stepping into his shoes.

    7. Me: “For small corporations, start-ups, and corporations raising capital, the shareholders typically are investors.”

    You: “True. AS Hessen notes, the entity theory helps to insulate liabiltiy most egregiously in the close corporation case. Another strike against the fervor agains bigness.”

    Sorry, but I have no “fervor”. The insulation from liability is most obvious in the close corporation case, but some close corporations are huge (LBOs). But it’s the larger public co.s that are really shifting the greatest amount of risk to others, in the form of toxic torts and dangerous products.

    8. Me: “Moreover, for small firms, closely-held firms (including large LBOs) and even for many large firms, there are major shareholders that are also clearly “owners”.”

    You: I don’t konw what proving ownership status does. So waht? I will grant you that in some cases some shareholder wields such influence and direction over the firm that he ought to be as culpable as management for actions he helps direct. So what? My point is that *merely being a shareholder* is not by itself sufficient to attribute liability.”

    Thanks for the acknowledgment. The point’s obvious – “*merely being a shareholder* is not by itself sufficient basis to exclude a shareholder from liability. In addition there’s a larger point – without limited liability, shareholders would have had potentially unlimited liablility, and consequently would have been much more cautious about whom they invested in, and making sure that downside risk was closely managed.

    9. You: “I am in favor of a nuanced and fact-specific approach, as I laid out in my Causation piece w/ Tinsley. If you can show in a given case that a shareholder is causally responsible for torts of the corporation, get ‘im. I’m just saying you have not shown that merely being a shareholder makes this case. It takes something more.”

    I’m not opposed to a nuanced and fact-specific approach, but the fact is that the grant of limited liability has essentially eviscerated it.

    10. Me: “your implied position that investors and owners should be able to freely slough-off any vicarious responsibility for damages to victims of corporate acts by the simple expedient of selling their shares to others (who, while they do not directly fund the company, are certainly investing in ownership of the same set of assets and liabilities as the initial investors).”

    You: “Saying they invest in liabilities is a bit of question-begging. The question is: does the status of a person as a shareholder–having certain dividend and liquidation and director-voting rights–make you liable for what the corporation does? I don’t rest my own conlcusions on whether the state “officially” classifies the shareholder “as an owner.” I’m looking at the functional reality of what they are and do.

    I’m not begging any question; a shareholder who buys shares that aren’t fully paid up purchases may be required to contribute the rest of the capital, and a whole host of obligations may accompany shares in a close corporation. And I’m looking at the effect of the state grant of entity status and limited liability on what a shareholder’s bundle of rights and obligations is.

    11: Me: “Where does “the state” impose vicarious tort liability? Respondeat superior is largely an old and evolving part of the common law.”

    You: “Yes, and we are a new and modern creature called “libertarian,” not tradition- or state-law-worshipping positivists.”

    How about actually answering my question? Where does “the state” impose vicarious tort liability? The common law is not state-imposed. And surely you haven’t failed to notice that libertarians routinely refer to the common law as the reason why regulation isn’t needed (other than those like Rothbard who recognize that regulation is needed because corporations persuade judges to subvert it).

    12. Me: “You say that, if victims could “sue shareholders individually”, in which case “shareholders could simply purchase shareholder-liability-insurance, no biggie”. I heartily agree – a system of pro rata shareholder unlimited liability would work (as one of the law journal articles argues), as well as being more just. I appreciate the concession – so have you stopped fighting this point?”

    You: “It’s not a concession. It’s pointing out that this is just a red herring on your part. You guys throw up limited tort liability as if it’s some huge advantage given to corps that allows them to survive. It’s not a huge advantage b/c removing it really doesn’t affect victims;a nd imposing it can easily be handled with a slight change of the already-existing insurance coverage. If we did this, not much would change, but I’m sure the anti-industrialist types would find something else to yap about. You are not *really* concerned with this–it’s just one of an arsenal of arguments you whip out to attack industry and busienss and “bigness” and capitalism and whatnot.”

    Stephan, first, I’m disappointed by your dismissive and somewhat offensive talk of “you guys” and what you presume my motives to be. I’m not an “anti-industrialist type”, and I’m here on my own and making my own points (which must mean I’m “yapping,” in your book). Second, raising the issue of limited tort liability is not a red herring, at least for me, and it’s not something I think corporations need to survive. I do think it’s very important because I think that real shifting or risk, moral hazard, corporate governance and other issues are intertwined and that underlies the whole politicized struggle over corporate regulation.

    Courts rarely find individuals responsible, other than for very deliberate torts, in part because negligence is attributed to the firm (and managers and executives are generally excused from liability for the negligent acts of employees) but chiefly because those injured – particularly where the damges affect many people – don’t bother chasing those without substantial assets.

    That it will seldom be the shareholders is a result of the state grant of limited liability – given such a grant, shareholders have no interest in monitoring, and no ability control, corporate/employee acts. Without such a grant, it would be a different story – which is why business partners are still running to limited liability forms, and leaving unlimited liability partnerships and sole proprietorships behind.

    Regards,

    Tom

  • Published: December 15, 2008 8:50 AM

  • Stephan KinsellaAuthor Profile Page
  • TokyoTom:

    1. You: “But you say “shift” here, which smuggles in your presumption that shareholders have a natural or default liability. If they don’t, there’s no “shift.””

     

    I thinks it’s a fair and natural presumption that investors (as opposed to lenders, who have a claim only for interest and no residual claim for profits) have a natural default liability.

    Again: shareholders are not investors necessarily. In any case, you are question-begging. It’s not a fair presumption for the libertarian–that’s the issue here.

    This is still the case for sole proprietors and partnerships. “Shareholders” exist only because states created corporations as legal entities. Without such action, there would be at least one natural person to whom employees would have to answer

    Yeah, like you mean, the President or CEO, or manager or boss? Sure. These guys run the company. Not shareholders.

    and who would be responsible for risks posed by his business activities (loans and involuntary torts), up to the full amount of his personal assets.

    Why do you say it’s “his” business activities? Why this presumption?

    Yes, there is still the question of the range of vicarious liablity, but clearly even today business owners and partners are deliberately incorporating (using corporation, LLC and LLP forms) for the chief purpose of limiting personal liability for the acts of employees.

    I don’t think so. It’s primarily for contractual liability limitation, which would continue to exist in a free society. Tort liability could easily be handled by insurance.

    And courts continue to pierce the corporate veil from time to time to reach shareholders as well.

    Yep, when formalities are not followed or a shareholder is too dominant and really acts as a manager.

    Me: I agree with what you think is wrong with state action, but in the case of granting the corporate form and granting limited liability, there have been a a number of pernicious consequences, one of which involves an externalization of risk of the kind I mention.

    Well, if the state is abolished as we want, any “externalities” would go away.

    4. You: “All these actions are done by individuals–and if done as decisions of the managers, then they and the corporate assets probably ought to be liable. But why the shareholders, if they didnt make this decision?”In many cases the shareholders ARE in a position of control; should they be able to escape liability merely because they use the corporate form, as is the rule today? I think not.

    Right, I agree. Thoguh even in today’s law, if a shareholder is in a position of control, it’s either (a) because he’s also a manager or director; or (b) he goes beyond his passive shareholder role and pushes the company to do his bidding. In case (a), he’s not protected by limited liability. In case (b), well,l of ten in such cases the corporate veil would be pierced, again reaching his personal assets.

    I agree that it is difficult to argue that minority and non-controlling shareholders in public firms bear any responsibility for acts of the corporation, since that was not a part of the bargain they understood that they were making when they acquired their shares and they largely have no actual ability to affect decisions that end up causing injury to others.

    I actually think it’s got nothing to do w/ the bargain they thought they were entering, since A and B cannot contractually limit C’s tort-recover rights. However, I do agree w/ you that their ability to control is key. Now you appear to have swung in my direction on this.

    Me: Stephan, I’m only discussing the difference a shareholder and an investor because you seem to think it’s importance.

    I think they are *different*. The investor *gives money to* the company. The shareholder *votes for directors*. Both are different ways of having an affect on the company. The advocate of vicarious liability could make a separate argument based on each action for liability. Both are flawed, but in different ways.

    Anyone who acquires a newly issued share is an investor; anyone who buys one on a market is stepping into his shoes.

    “stepping into his shoes”–the idea of subrogation is just a positive law doctrine that begs the question here.

    it’s the larger public co.s that are really shifting the greatest amount of risk to others, in the form of toxic torts and dangerous products.

    Small companies cut all kinds of corners–tons of illegal dumpting etc. It’s decnetralized and harder to track. And of course the biggest polluter is the state–e.g., w/ its wars.

    In any event, I don’t see that teh danger of toxic torts implies that shareholders have vicarious liabiltiy for torts of others.

    You: I don’t konw what proving ownership status does. So waht? I will grant you that in some cases some shareholder wields such influence and direction over the firm that he ought to be as culpable as management for actions he helps direct. So what? My point is that *merely being a shareholder* is not by itself sufficient to attribute liability.”Thanks for the acknowledgment. The point’s obvious – “*merely being a shareholder* is not by itself sufficient basis to exclude a shareholder from liability.

    it’s not obvious to the anticorpo crusaders, who think it’s a Holy Crime to NOT impute liability to them! They “are” “owers,” after all!

    In addition there’s a larger point – without limited liability, shareholders would have had potentially unlimited liablility,

    Auugh! No, they wouldn’t. Not if they were merely passive shareholders.

    and consequently would have been much more cautious about whom they invested in, and making sure that downside risk was closely managed.

    I of course agree there ought to be no statutory rule insulating them from liability. And if there is any risk at all, a market for insurance would develop, and maybe hte insurers would hav higher premiums for riskier corps. Sure.

    I’m not opposed to a nuanced and fact-specific approach,

    Progress!

    but the fact is that the grant of limited liability has essentially eviscerated it.

    Probably; but none of us are in favor of a state grant of limited liability. We just think that the left’s focusing on this as the Root of All Evil is confused and misplaced.

    You: “Saying they invest in liabilities is a bit of question-begging. The question is: does the status of a person as a shareholder–having certain dividend and liquidation and director-voting rights–make you liable for what the corporation does? I don’t rest my own conlcusions on whether the state “officially” classifies the shareholder “as an owner.” I’m looking at the functional reality of what they are and do.I’m not begging any question; a shareholder who buys shares that aren’t fully paid up purchases may be required to contribute the rest of the capital, and a whole host of obligations may accompany shares in a close corporation.

    I don’t think you can just assert that they buy liabilities. tha’ts question-begging.

    You: “Yes, and we are a new and modern creature called “libertarian,” not tradition- or state-law-worshipping positivists.”How about actually answering my question? Where does “the state” impose vicarious tort liability? The common law is not state-imposed.

    sure it is; and in any event, it is not necessarily libertarian.

    And surely you haven’t failed to notice that libertarians routinely refer to the common law as the reason why regulation isn’t needed (other than those like Rothbard who recognize that regulation is needed because corporations persuade judges to subvert it).

    for two reasons: first, the common law is usually more libertarain than modern legislated law (see my 1995 JLS piece, Legislation and the Discovery of Law in a Free Society,” for my thoughts on this).

    Me: “You say that, if victims could “sue shareholders individually”, in which case “shareholders could simply purchase shareholder-liability-insurance, no biggie”. I heartily agree – a system of pro rata shareholder unlimited liability would work (as one of the law journal articles argues), as well as being more just. I appreciate the concession – so have you stopped fighting this point?”

     

    No. I still think it’s unjust for them to have liability where it’s not warranted–it’s just that it would make little difference, which shows that this is just a straw man for the left–it masques their real issue which is hostility to modern business and capitalism.

    Stephan, first, I’m disappointed by your dismissive and somewhat offensive talk of “you guys” and what you presume my motives to be. I’m not an “anti-industrialist type”

    Hey, you gets what you pays for 🙂

    , and I’m here on my own and making my own points (which must mean I’m “yapping,” in your book).

    I do have a way with words, don’t I?

    Second, raising the issue of limited tort liability is not a red herring, at least for me, and it’s not something I think corporations need to survive.

    Right. The main thing is limited liabiltiy for contractual debts–and this is perfectly legitimate–see Hessen.

    I do think it’s very important because I think that real shifting or risk, moral hazard, corporate governance and other issues are intertwined and that underlies the whole politicized struggle over corporate regulation.

    But the anticorpos act as if limited liabiilty is what lets corporations survive, and grow larger than they could on a free market. The problem wtih this reasoning is (a) limited *contractual* liability would exist on the free market; and (b) limited tort liability is trivial and no big deal. So neither can help boost the size of the corporation artificially.

  • Published: December 15, 2008 2:35 PM

  • P.M.Lawrence
  • Where on earth does “But the anticorpos act as if limited liabiilty is what lets corporations survive, and grow larger than they could on a free market” come from, when entity status has been brought up over and over? We can see quite clearly from history that that is all it takes to do it, from examples like the mediaeval church. Not that limited liability isn’t involved; but it just pushes in the same direction. With just that by itself, firms would have internal limits that would eventually slow their growth to a halt or split them.
  • Published: December 15, 2008 5:01 PM

  • TokyoTom
  • Stephan, thanks for the dialogue.You: Again: shareholders are not investors necessarily. In any case, you are question-begging. It’s not a fair presumption for the libertarian–that’s the issue here.
    While I would agree with you that there should be no presumption that shareholders SHOULD have tort liability – after all, that should be a decision that depends on the facts of particular cases – I think it’s pretty clear that the blanket grant of limited liability has in fact acted to shield shareholders (and initial investors) from tort liability.You: Yeah, like you mean, the President or CEO, or manager or boss? Sure. These guys run the company. Not shareholders.
    Yes, the guys who run the company ought to be liable, but in some cases, controlling shareholders as well. Most individuals simply don’t have the assets to cover all of the risks, so a blanket rule that stops tortfeasor liability with the firm is clearly wrong.. Note that there are no rules that require managers, executives or even firms to acquire insurance sufficient to cover all risks created by corporate activity.You: I don’t think so. It’s primarily for contractual liability limitation, which would continue to exist in a free society. Tort liability could easily be handled by insurance.
    Stephan, come on. The partnerships could contract for liability limitations without a limited liability form; they have been moving rapidly into LLCs and LLPs solely to slough off risk to their personal assets for torts; for the same reasons, big firms that are already corporations separately incorporate subs for dangerous activities in order to limit potential liability for damages (both for torts and to creditors).

    You: Yep, when formalities are not followed or a shareholder is too dominant and really acts as a manager.
    My point about veil-piercing is that such cases show that no general state grant of limited liability is justified. The doctrine itself is extremely inconsistently used, in part because given the legal grant of limited liability courts are reluctant to use their equity power.

    You: Well, if the state is abolished as we want, any “externalities” would go away.
    Yeah, “IF”. Until then, there is certainly a lot of externalization that takes place, which seems to excite a few people.

    You: Right, I agree. Thoguh even in today’s law, if a shareholder is in a position of control, it’s either (a) because he’s also a manager or director; or (b) he goes beyond his passive shareholder role and pushes the company to do his bidding. In case (a), he’s not protected by limited liability. In case (b), well,l of ten in such cases the corporate veil would be pierced, again reaching his personal assets.
    I am happy that you agree that shareholders in a position of control should not be able to escape liability merely because they use the corporate form.

    You: I actually think it’s got nothing to do w/ the bargain they thought they were entering, since A and B cannot contractually limit C’s tort-recover rights. However, I do agree w/ you that their ability to control is key. Now you appear to have swung in my direction on this.
    In any particular case, I agree with you that actual ability to control is key. But generally, the state grant of limited liability is wrong and should be repealed.

    Me: Stephan, I’m only discussing the difference a shareholder and an investor because you seem to think it’s importance.
    You: I think they are *different*. The investor *gives money to* the company. The shareholder *votes for directors*. Both are different ways of having an affect on the company. The advocate of vicarious liability could make a separate argument based on each action for liability. Both are flawed, but in different ways.
    I’m not sure that there’s a relevant distinction. If an investor provides money to a firm, he does so in exchange for a bargain of certain rights and liabilities; any purchaser simply steps into his shoes. Granted, if an investor or shareholder has separately taken actions that make him liable for a tort, that liability is not conveyed by a sale. I do not otherwise presume that a shareholder, by virtue of owning shares and having rights (and maybe an obligation to fully pay up shares), should become liable for the torts of others.

    You: Small companies cut all kinds of corners–tons of illegal dumpting etc. It’s decnetralized and harder to track. And of course the biggest polluter is the state–e.g., w/ its wars. In any event, I don’t see that teh danger of toxic torts implies that shareholders have vicarious liabiltiy for torts of others.
    I agree with you about small firms and the state, but large firms pollute – often as part of doing business with government – and generate risks too. The point is that the state grant of limited liability has as its purpose cutting off liability at the corporate level, thereby freeing shareholders. Without such a grant, investors and shareholders in firms would be much more careful about the risks that they generate.

    You: it’s not obvious to the anticorpo crusaders, who think it’s a Holy Crime to NOT impute liability to them! They “are” “owers,” after all!
    Thanks for the acknowledgement that *merely being a shareholder* is not by itself a sufficient basis to exclude a shareholder from liability. But there you go again, “yapping” about other people who aren’t on this thread!

    Me: In addition there’s a larger point – without limited liability, shareholders would have had potentially unlimited liablility,
    You: Auugh! No, they wouldn’t. Not if they were merely passive shareholders.
    I agree with you that merely passive shareholders probably would not have liability, but the potential risk is there that they would have to face. They could wall off the risk by insurance (which would put an insurer in a position to evaluate the riskiness of a business and the degree of insulation that a shareholder is afforded by how the rights of shareholders are structured), or self-insure by making a similar analysis. But absent the limited liability rule, no doubt some shareholders would opt for measures that ensure better management by the company of risks of injury to third parties.

    Me: I’m not opposed to a nuanced and fact-specific approach, but the fact is that the grant of limited liability has essentially eviscerated it.
    You: Probably; but none of us are in favor of a state grant of limited liability.
    Progress!

    You: We just think that the left’s focusing on this as the Root of All Evil is confused and misplaced.
    It does sound like it may be confused, but is it really misplaced? My own view is that without a state grant of limited liability on torts that we would see greater shareholder efforts to control the risks of injury to third parties, more responsible corporate behavior, more responsible management, fewer efforts by citizens groups to get government to impose asset/bonding requirements, to impose broader liability in pollution cases (Superfund), and to regulate. There would be less vilification of corporations generally.

    Me: “How about actually answering my question? Where does “the state” impose vicarious tort liability? The common law is not state-imposed.
    You: sure it is; and in any event, it is not necessarily libertarian.
    How about actually answering my question? Where does “the state” impose vicarious tort liability?

    You: No. I still think it’s unjust for them to have liability where it’s not warranted–it’s just that it would make little difference, which shows that this is just a straw man for the left–it masques their real issue which is hostility to modern business and capitalism.
    Again, I’m not “the left” (and off of this site I am considered radically right); it may be a strawman for some of them, but I actually think that the grant of limited liability has had serious pernicious affects and removing it would be a great positive step. Under libertarian principles, individuals are responsible to the full extent of their assets for their harms to others; the creation of legal entities with limited liability for torts has allowed for the massive generation of risks, without regard to whether such risks are backed by the assets of real individuals. Rather, such risks are cut off by fiat at the corporate level, allowing shareholders to take profits for the upside of gains but not having to bear downside risk.

    Regards,

    Tom

  • Published: December 16, 2008 5:10 AM

  • TokyoATom
  • FWIW, I have further refined a list of legal resources concerning the evolution of limited liability, the consequences, proposals for reform and on vicarious liability:”Legal resources on state-created limited liability for shareholders, consequences and reform”
    http://mises.org/Community/blogs/tokyotom/archive/2008/12/16/legal-resources-on-state-created-limited-liability-for-shareholders-consequences-and-reform.aspx
  • Published: December 16, 2008 5:22 AM

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{ 2 comments }

Mises blog, archived comments below.

On stupid and confused “thickism” see various posts under tag thickism, and Cory Massimino, “Libertarianism is More than Anti-Statism,” C4SS (April 8th, 2014).

Left-Libertarians on Corporations “Expropriating the Efforts of Stakeholders”

Over at Mutualist Blog, Kevin Carson replies to, inter alia, Peter Klein’s response to Roderick Long. I replied at length in the comments, but let me just note here a few of the comments, expressions, and assumptions that caught my eye as being problematic from a libertarian and Austrian point of view. First there is the repeated complaining about “vagueness of ownership rights in the corporation,” and “the ambiguous division of control between management and shareholders.” There is a “pretense that management represents shareholders or that the latter are the owners in any real sense“. “Corporate management, in fact, is a self-perpetuating oligarchy in control of a free-floating mass of unowned capital.” “It uses its purported representation of shareholders as a legitimizing ideology to insulate it from accountability to internal stakeholders.“ “More generally, hierarchy and the separation of labor from residual claimancy are inherently prone to incentive and agency problems.” And finally, corporations “expropriate” the “efforts” of “internal stakeholders” “because of the vaguely defined property rights in the organization. … much of the value created by internal stakeholders is expropriated by management.”

Carson also relies on “Rothbard’s threshold of calculational chaos“–to argue that “the predominant oligopoly firms in the existing manufacturing sector” must be artificially large since they “are already demonstrably above” this threshold.

(He goes on: “Rothbard argued, specifically, that rational calculation becomes impossible whenever no external market exists for an intermediate good. Since, in fact, the majority of intermediate goods used by the typical manufacturing corporation are firm-specific, their transfer prices must be assigned internally rather than based on outside markets.”)

One hardly knows where to begin in responding to such reasoning. But as I noted in my response–libertarianism does not require any “pretense” that “management represents shareholders or that the latter are the owners in any real sense.” It only requires respect for property rights and not interfering in capitalist acts between consenting adults. That is, if you can somehow show that “management” does not “represent” shareholders, or that they are not “the owners” in “any real sense”–so what? Whose rights are being violated? If you don’t like the way a firm is organized, don’t work there; don’t invest in it.

Beyond that: in a libertarian society we need only identify who has the right to control a given resource; and who is responsible for the commission of various torts or crimes. If a collection of people (shareholders, directors, managers, creditors) whatever all agree to some complicated internal set of rules that specify their right to control a set of private assets, then *their* rights are not violated (they all agreed to it), and outsiders have no business complaining, any more than they would have a right to complain about the “messiness” of ownership claims within a neighborhood that has an ambiguously drawn set of restrictive covenants. For example if I buy a share of Wal-Mart stock I am in some sense an owner, but only in specified ways–I don’t have the right to use the Wal-Mart HQ for a picnic etc. I have agreed to a contractual set of rules that divide control–day-to-day control is given to managers; and a set of procedures determines how changes to the rules or to the decision-makers is made. From the perspective of an outsider, Wal-mart property is owned by a set of people (shareholders plus directors plus managers).

In response to Carson’s claim that corporate property is “a free-floating mass of unowned capital”–hogwash. Walmart’s inventory and factories and stores are not unowned by any stretch of the imagination. Just because some anti-market or anti-capitalist types don’t like the messiness and complexity of the internal rules governing rights of control (ownership) of these assets is utterly irrelevant. You don’t have to work for them, or invest in them. This “unowned” comments has a whiff of Georgism about it.

As for yammering about “stakeholders” — this leftist concept is routinely used by governments to justify infringing property rights. Again: in libertarianism, the corporation does not need to justify anything–so it does not need to pretend it “represents” anyone. If a group of people agree to pool their money and become shareholders, this just means they have agreed to collectively purchase some things with their money, and to have specified rights of control and rights to gain or dividends, that is their business. The consent of the parties is all that is needed to justify it.

As for “stakeholders,” it depends on who this means. For people that are employed by, or contract with, or invest in, or sell to or buy from the company–their rights are defined by contract already. The only other people left would be those who have torts committed against them by employees of the company. A libertarian theory of causation (as I noted here) is what is needed here, to determine who should be vicariously responsible for the actions committed by employees–should anyone else be? Should the corporation as a whole? The managers? Executives? Directors? Shareholders? Creditor? Vendors? Customers? Consultants? Contractors? “Stakeholders”? Whoever it should be, they should of course not be exempted from liability. But most people, including bad-lefties and libertarian lefties (and most libertarians in general) seem to simply assume that vicarious liability and respondeat superior are valid, and that absent state law, shareholders ought to be liable for torts committed by employees. But to my knowledge no one has shown that they should be. This has has to be established before one can bluster in outrage at the failure of the state to hold shareholders personally liable for such torts.

As for the comments about management “expropriating” the “efforts” of “stakeholders”–here we have what appears to me to be Marxian reasoning: the “expropriation of efforts”? What? I’d like to see exactly whose “labor” is being “stolen”? An employee? Hey, he isn’t compelled to work for them. The comments indicate that the value of the stakeholders’ effort is stolen from them–but you can’t “expropriate” value. People do now own value. There is no property right in value. Workers do not have any ownership claim to a company they have worked for–they have a claim to whatever they have contractually agreed to, that’s all.

As for the complaints about the separation of labor from “residual claimancy.” Libertarianism does not require labor to not be “separated” from XYZ; it does not base property rights on whether there are or are not “incentive” or “agency” “problems”. If incentive or agency problems that arise when using a given firm structure, presumably people over time will invest in or employ more efficient structures. If they don’t–hey, it’s their money.

archived comments

extra from:

The Wandering Marxist February 12, 2010 at 10:39 pm

“anti-capitalists who think they are owed more than their wage for their labour,” Dixie Flatline

Are you accepting the “LABOUR THEORY OF VALUE” with respect to what Marx called “labour power?” Namely, the necessary means of subsistence needed for the workers to resume working later?

Or is this the “Iron Law of Wage?”

Lo, I see vulgar corporate libertarians around. As if robber barons’ capitalism be what Hans Hoppe called “clean-capitalism.”

Comments (123)

  • JoeMama
  • PWNED
  • Published: December 8, 2008 4:30 PM

  • DixieFlatline
  • Nice work Stephan. We’ve been discussing mutualism in the forums.Personally tired of the anti-capitalists who think they are owed more than their wage for their labour, and that someone else accumulating capital somehow entitles them to that capital.
  • Published: December 8, 2008 5:34 PM

  • Matthew Dawson
  • Not so much. He confuses the moral and economic arguments against corporations, and he misses the point about “expropriation” (granted, I probably wouldn’t use that word, given the connotations). What Carson is trying to say is that, in a free market, workers would be able to recieve the full product of their labor as wages; however, the cartelization and oligopoly effects that the state enforces keeps the cost of labor artifically low. I’m not sure I fully agree with him here, but that’s what he means. It’s not “Marxist” by any means.
  • Published: December 8, 2008 5:34 PM

  • Mike
  • This isn’t really on topic, but you were a little unfairly dismissive of the workers’ occupation in Chicago. My understanding was they were demanding contractually guaranteed severance pay. It’s not quite the syndicalist “take over of the means of production” you made it out to be. Our reading of the situation should depend on the details of the contract in dispute. If they were indeed guaranteed pay that they are not receiving (which is allegedly $1.5 million), then they are merely expropriating that which is owed to them. If not, then they are trespassing. But I really don’t think any outside observer is in a position to know without thoroughly analyzing the contract in question.
  • Published: December 8, 2008 6:18 PM

  • Rich
  • >> Personally tired of the
    >> anti-capitalists who think
    >> they are owed more than their
    >> wage for their labour, and that
    >> someone else accumulating capital
    >> somehow entitles them to that
    >> capital.You didn’t read the article, did you? Just some comments on it? Agency issues are a very real problem in corporations.A single propriator has interests which are identical to his business. Effectively, he *is* is business. He enjoys it’s profit, and he suffers it’s loss. If he is the decision maker, all the incentives of the market conspire to drive him “as if by an invisible hand” to an efficient solution.

    In a modern corporation, however, that is not the case. The “owners” generally delegate the management of the company to managers, who will (like any employee) pursue their own interests, which may or may not include a reasonable effort toward turning a profit they will not enjoy.

    Of course that’s not important from a political point of view, since if they (for example) pay themselves excessive salaries, the wasted money belongs to the shareholders, and they authorized the manager to act on their behalf. But none the less, as economists, one must acknowledge that unless the managers of a corporation own 100% of the stock, the interests of the shareholders and the interests of the managers are not identical, and that there are economic implications to that fact.

    If an anarchist society (including an anarcho captialist society), of course, corporations would not exist. Corporations exist independently of their owners only because governments say they do. Without a government to perpetuate the legal fiction of “corporate personhood”, one is left with a large and stylized partnership which allows partners to “sell out” and new partners to “buy in” on a stock exchange.

  • Published: December 8, 2008 6:19 PM

  • Stephan Kinsella
  • Dawson,It could be he has some idiosyncratic use of the term. But if this is his argument it is still flawed: for we are all, producers and consumers, employers and employees, made worse off by the state’s predations, as a general rule. You could argue the workers “expropriate” their employers due to various federal laws; and so on. So if this is a fancy way of saying “governments cause damage”, uh, yeah, we know that.
  • Published: December 8, 2008 6:20 PM

  • Dan Mahoney
  • “What Carson is trying to say is that, in a free market, workers would be able to recieve the full product of their labor as wages;”Why should workers “receive the full product of their labor” when part of that product depends on capital provided by the capitalist? If these claims about the “full product” of ones labor are supposed to be obvious, I have to say I’m not seeing it.
  • Published: December 8, 2008 7:38 PM

  • DixieFlatline
  • Rich, in an anarchist society, anything (including a corporation) can exist if it is voluntary.It’s a myth that people will not pool their capital, and create organizational structures and forms to handle management, compensation, and liability.As long as it is voluntary, people can contract to organize any way they wish. Or do you deny this?
  • Published: December 8, 2008 7:40 PM

  • Jerusel
  • Dixieflatline,I think you misunderstand Rich’s argument. He did not say that people could not pool their resources or contract how they pleased, but that the presence of government intervention in those associations creates artificial personhood when the owners are not legally accountable.It seems you two agree on voluntary association. If you want to disagree with him, it should be about the legal differences between a corporation and partnership. Do you believe that corporate personhood is compatible with anarchism?
  • Published: December 8, 2008 9:17 PM

  • whittaker
  • “As long as it is voluntary, people can contract to organize any way they wish. Or do you deny this?”Dixie, no one is stopping people from organizing. But why do those people need state-mandated exemptions from liability? Why do they need thousands of pages of corporate law to create artificial notions of personhood and corporate veils?Why can’t those people be responsible for the direct and indirect effects of their actions, the same way any independent business owner would be?

    The presence of corporate law gives shareholders an incentive to act immorally, by treating their investment as a numbers game, in essence gambling on a return without any personal involvement in the enterprise. Corporate law also allows those in control of an organization to hide their personal interests behind the fiction of serving an abstract entity.

    When corporate personhood is combined with the “unlimited police power” of the legislature (another ill-advised element of our legal system) the result is lobbying, special favors for corporations, and further entrenchment of the corporation an arm of the state. The final result is market failure (since corporate managers are chosen for political skill rather than productive capacity) followed by management holding employees, customers, and shareholders hostage in their demands for bailouts.

    We need a complete repeal of corporation laws and a constitutional amendment preventing their re-enactment.

  • Published: December 8, 2008 10:21 PM

  • DixieFlatline
  • Jerusel, what the state does, can be done contractually and voluntarily in the private market (the basis of Anarcho-Capitalism). Now whether you choose to deal with such a firm is up to you. In fact, most people can choose in this society whether or not they will be patrons of corporations. Most do.@ whittakerThere is a demand for limited liability investment structures. In a free market, if you don’t like dealing with a firm that limits it’s liability to you, then you won’t engage with them. That’s your right. But in a free market, investors can structure themselves anyway they want, as long as they come to it voluntarily.

    Now whether what they come up with is feasible, or desirable in the market, will be determined by competition. They will still have to compete.

    I find the entire frustration with corporations very amusing, and totally irrational. It’s definitely one topic where a great many libertarians, primarily self-described left-libertarians, turn off their brains and become dogmatic.

  • Published: December 8, 2008 10:48 PM

  • evan
  • I can’t understand why people have difficulty understanding that limited liability can always exist. Do they not realize that THEY acknowledge the limited liability of corporations everyday? This would be no different without the presence of the state.
  • Published: December 8, 2008 11:18 PM

  • Jerusen
  • DixieFlatline,I am sorry…I’m afraid I don’t understand your point of view. Or maybe you are just dodging the question asked of you. Do you think it is ok to legislate limited liability for corporate owners? It is either yes or no. The main issues here have been government involvement and nothing else. Nobody is denying that limited liability cannot contractually exist.As a consumer, I am not required to sign a contract when I enter a Wal-Mart removing liability from damages, but that still exists through state legislation.

    If limited liability should ever exist, in the form contractual acceptance between associating parties would be an acceptable method, but dictating it through force of law seems less than Libertarian.

    Can I get one of these handy dandy government guarantees for limited liability for my person? I would love to limit my liability through force of government for injuries caused from driving on the highway…with a monster truck…and flaming tires. That would be cool.

    But anyway, if you are set on replying again, there is no need to insult intelligence.

  • Published: December 9, 2008 12:23 AM

  • Brent
  • For some, it comes down to hating an organizational design because there are currently privileges granted by the state to organizations that employ that design. For others, it comes down to hating the well-to-do who run some of these organizations. Either way, any discussion about the inherent evil of corporations is bound to be less than fruitful.
  • Published: December 9, 2008 1:34 AM

  • Stephan Kinsella
  • Rich: “Of course that’s not important from a political point of view, since if they (for example) pay themselves excessive salaries, the wasted money belongs to the shareholders, and they authorized the manager to act on their behalf. But none the less, as economists, one must acknowledge that unless the managers of a corporation own 100% of the stock, the interests of the shareholders and the interests of the managers are not identical, and that there are economic implications to that fact.”You do realize that as soon as there are at least 2 people involved in a firm–eg., a 2-person partnership–each partner has incentives to waste that do not exist in a sole proprietorship. If I own my own shop, then every dollar I spend on a business meal comes off my bottom line. But if I’m 1 of 5 partners, then I might as well order the best steak on a business meal, since I get all the benefit but only 1/5 the cost.
  • Published: December 9, 2008 2:48 AM

  • TokyoTom
  • Stephan, while I agree with most of your post, your attempt to shift the burden of argument on the issue of limited liability strikes me as a bit disingenuous:most people … seem to simply assume that … absent state law, shareholders ought to be liable for torts committed by employees. This has has to be established before one can bluster in outrage at the failure of the state to hold shareholders personally liable for such torts.As I’ve noted elsewhere, http://mises.org/Community/blogs/tokyotom/archive/2008/11/26/corporations-amp-the-state-some-criticisms-of-huebert-and-block-s-criticisms-of-long.aspx, one of the chief purposes and effects of the corporate form is that through it, the state allows owners to sidestep any personal liability for the wrongful acts that their corporation commits, with the result that liability for such wrongful acts is limited to the assets of the corporation. Very clearly, limited liability to investors is an act of state, and not something that investors could contract for in advance with the as yet unknown victims of their future torts. As such it seems to me clearly inconsistent with libertarianism.

    Do you find it so difficult to establish that such limited liability IS consistent with libertarianism that your best response is to shift the burden of proof, while characterizing those who disagree with you as “blustering with outrage”?

  • Published: December 9, 2008 3:25 AM

  • Dan Mahoney
  • Fromhttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Corporation“The defining feature of a corporation is its legal independence from the people who create it. If a corporation fails, shareholders only stand to lose their investment, and employees will lose their jobs, but neither will be liable for debts that remain owing to the corporation’s creditors. This rule is called limited liability, and it is why the names of corporations in the UK end with “Ltd.” (or some variant like “Inc.” and “plc”).”

    Seriously, what is so hard to understand about this? Why do so many libertarians think that limited liability provides a means to commit rights-violations under the cover of some legal fiction?

  • Published: December 9, 2008 7:25 AM

  • Dan Mahoney
  • A related question: as with the issue of intellectual property law, why do so many libertarians feel no hesitation to discourse on technical, legal issues they clearly don’t understand?
  • Published: December 9, 2008 7:29 AM

  • ktibuk
  • Good job Stephan. Now you need to see how your IP stance contradicts all you have said in this corporation debate. Maybe you can sense your own wiff of Georgism regarding IP, or rather copyrights. Although you are very much invested in your position, there might still be hope for you.And Dan Mahoney,”Seriously, what is so hard to understand about this? Why do so many libertarians think that limited liability provides a means to commit rights-violations under the cover of some legal fiction?”

    Exactly… There is an anti capitalist mentality behind all this.

  • Published: December 9, 2008 8:05 AM

  • magnus
  • Corporations existed before corporate statutes. So did marriage. So did commercial contracts.The State co-opted all of these voluntary practices and relationships and brought them under its control, first through a top-down form of court-made law (not true common law, mind you, but a statist facsimile of it), then when the courts weren’t enough, the State turned to statutes.Corporations were originally designed for limited contractual liability, since they arose at a time when the modern idea of tort law didn’t exist.

    Limited tort liability is an entirely different kettle of fish, one for which corporate statutes are totally ill-suited to handle.

  • Published: December 9, 2008 8:20 AM

  • JA
  • “Very clearly, limited liability to investors is an act of state, and not something that investors could contract for in advance with the as yet unknown victims of their future torts.”Please, pretty please, with sugar on top…explain to us WHY investors SHOULD be held personally liable for employees or managers?So if I invest in shares of UPS, or lend them money in the form of bonds, and a delivery man under employ of the company decides to drive unsafe, and runs over some old lady, why am I personally responsible for the driver’s actions? Or if I appoint a board of directors, and the directors rip off a bank, why am I personally responsible for the director’s theft?

    If a customer in Wal-Mart — a “stakeholder” by his patronage or association — decides to shoot up the place and murders multiple people, are the owners of Wal-Mart responsible for the crime? The other customers? The lenders? The “workers”?

    Why?

  • Published: December 9, 2008 8:49 AM

  • JA
  • A gut feeling about “left-libertarianism” –Is it about “selling” socialism using libertarian language? Or about “selling” libertarianism using socialist language?I realize there probably is tiny “movement” or “intellectual tradition” tracing their roots to Tucker et al. But is it really possible to mix Marx and Mises and Rothbard and Proudhon, given all of these men were operating under entirely different premises?

    It all smells a little funky and artificial. Other than Long, most of this is stuck on blogs and self-published e-books. Is this about POLITICKING by a couple cranks, or is there some genuine intellectual creation going on?

  • Published: December 9, 2008 9:21 AM

  • Doctor Whatzit
  • Hey there, JA. In what sense can ANY system of thought or set of views developed by human brains NOT be “artificial”? You seem to want to cast connotations about willy-nilly while being as-lazy-as-you-want-to-be about actual denotations.
  • Published: December 9, 2008 9:43 AM

  • Stephan KinsellaAuthor Profile Page
  • TokyoTom:

    Stephan, while I agree with most of your post, your attempt to shift the burden of argument on the issue of limited liability strikes me as a bit disingenuous:

    most people … seem to simply assume that … absent state law, shareholders ought to be liable for torts committed by employees. This has has to be established before one can bluster in outrage at the failure of the state to hold shareholders personally liable for such torts.

    As I’ve noted elsewhere, http://mises.org/Community/blogs/tokyotom/archive/2008/11/26/corporations-amp-the-state-some-criticisms-of-huebert-and-block-s-criticisms-of-long.aspx, one of the chief purposes and effects of the corporate form is that through it, the state allows owners to sidestep any personal liability for the wrongful acts that their corporation commits,

    It’s only sidestepping if they should have this liability in the first place. Should they?

    with the result that liability for such wrongful acts is limited to the assets of the corporation.

    This is untrue. Liability on the part of the *person who committed the wrongful act* is unlimited. If an Exxon employee robs your house, you can sue him for all he’s worth.

    Very clearly, limited liability to investors is an act of state, and not something that investors could contract for in advance with the as yet unknown victims of their future torts.

    The primary thing corporate law does is say that you can’t sue a *shareholder* of a corporation *as if he’s vicariously liable* for the full amount of damages for torts committed by employees of the corporation he owns shares in. It does not prevent suits against the tortfeasor himself, whether that person is an employee, shareholder, manager, director. It does not prevent suits against managers, or the corporation itself, as being vicariously liable for the acts of the employee (though I am not sure you could easily make out the case that all managers are liable). Now, if you want to object to the inability to sue shareholders for vicarious liability for the torts of another, you need to show that the victim *should* be able to sue the shareholders. Should he? If so, why? What exactly is your theory of causation and responsibility?

    Do you find it so difficult to establish that such limited liability IS consistent with libertarianism that your best response is to shift the burden of proof, while characterizing those who disagree with you as “blustering with outrage”?

    I’m referring in general to all the rants over the years by mostly legally ignorant libertarians about corporate limited liability.

    Dan Mahoney:

    Seriously, what is so hard to understand about this? Why do so many libertarians think that limited liability provides a means to commit rights-violations under the cover of some legal fiction?

    I do not know. I think many libertarians are armchair capitalists–in favor of it in principle, but no direct experience with how it really works. So they are clueless about corporate law and when they hear “limited liability” they play lawyer and make some amateur assumptions about what it means. I see similar things all the time with IP law–pro-IP libertarians will confuse trademark, copyright, patent, trade secret, they will get the rules confused–they defend the system even though they don’t understand what its rules are or how it works. It’s bizarre. [Ah, I see you noted this in your followup comment below.]

    kitbuk:

    Good job Stephan. Now you need to see how your IP stance contradicts all you have said in this corporation debate. Maybe you can sense your own wiff of Georgism regarding IP, or rather copyrights. Although you are very much invested in your position, there might still be hope for you.

    I don’t know what you mean. Are you saying that something similar to IP rights can be created by contract in the free market, and that state IP rights merely simulate this? The problem wtih this is that contracts cannot ensnare third parties, which IP rights do. If IP rights were limited to parties in privity your argument would carry more water.

    JA:

    “Very clearly, limited liability to investors is an act of state, and not something that investors could contract for in advance with the as yet unknown victims of their future torts.”

     

    Please, pretty please, with sugar on top…explain to us WHY investors SHOULD be held personally liable for employees or managers?

    Excellent question, JA. One to which the leftoid libertarian anti-corporate types have no answer, since they have no well-thought out theory of libertarian causation and responsibiltiy (and they often have a paltry understanding of what corporate limited liability provisions in the first place). They simply hand-wave and want to rely on positive law principles such as respondeat superior and vicarious liability, without a careful explanation of why shareholders should be liable. They rely overmuch on the state’s classifications such as “owner” and “shareholder” and “employee”.

  • Published: December 9, 2008 10:15 AM

  • DixieFlatline
  • Jerusen,If you read my responses, I made it clear that I am for voluntarism. I *assume* that everyone here agrees that the state should not legislate most things, if not everything. I’m not sure if that is what you were doing, but it is a typical anti-capitalist strawman to claim the vulgar libertarians are pro-state action.So no, the main issue here has nothing to do with government. Perhaps you are early to this blog entry, but late to the larger discussion between Klein/Long.

    As a consumer, I am not required to sign a contract when I enter a Wal-Mart removing liability from damages, but that still exists through state legislation.

     

    I agree with that.

    If limited liability should ever exist, in the form contractual acceptance between associating parties would be an acceptable method, but dictating it through force of law seems less than Libertarian.

    It’s defined by law, it’s not dictated by law. You’re quite aware when you enter WalMart that they are a limited liability corporation. And I think most people, have a fairly decent understanding of what that means.

    You are under absolutely no obligation to shop at WalMart, so do not. Very simple. If you don’t like their structure, policies, management, or state privilege, stop shopping there. That is how the market works. Punish them by withdrawing your patronage.

    Can I get one of these handy dandy government guarantees for limited liability for my person?

    As a matter of fact, you can. An individual can incorporate, which makes the position of the Mutualists all the more crankish. A corporation by structure, is not a “big business”.

    I would love to limit my liability through force of government for injuries caused from driving on the highway…with a monster truck…and flaming tires. That would be cool.

    Don’t confuse state privilege with legal structure. We’re all against state privilege, but we should all be for voluntary cooperative structures of any sort.

    But anyway, if you are set on replying again, there is no need to insult intelligence.

    I looked at my first response to you, and I saw no insult. Perhaps the issue is, as Reagan put it (paraphrased),”it’s not that you’re wrong, it’s just that you know so much that isn’t true”.

  • Published: December 9, 2008 10:41 AM

  • Dan Mahoney
  • More from Wiki, this time with a nice Rothbard quote:The anarcho-capitalist libertarian and Austrian economist Murray N. Rothbard, in his Power and Market (1970), attacked limited-liability laws, but argued it was possible similar arrangements may emerge in a free market, stating,Finally, the question may be raised: Are corporations themselves mere grants of monopoly privilege? Some advocates of the free market were persuaded to accept this view by Walter Lippmann’s The Good Society. It should be clear from previous discussion, however, that corporations are not at all monopolistic privileges; they are free associations of individuals pooling their capital. On the purely free market, such individuals would simply announce to their creditors that their liability is limited to the capital specifically invested in the corporation, and that beyond this their personal funds are not liable for debts, as they would be under a partnership arrangement. It then rests with the sellers and lenders to this corporation to decide whether or not they will transact business with it. If they do, then they proceed at their own risk. Thus, the government does not grant corporations a privilege of limited liability; anything announced and freely contracted for in advance is a right of a free individual, not a special privilege. It is not necessary that governments grant charters to corporations.

    In the U.S. lawyers have suggested that, while limited liability towards creditors is socially beneficial in facilitating investment, the privilege ought not to extend to liability in tort for environmental disasters or personal injury.

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Limited_liability

  • Published: December 9, 2008 10:56 AM

  • Stephan KinsellaAuthor Profile Page
  • Leftlibertarian.org replies to my LRC post (rather, the post of one “Stephen Kinsella”) here. Gotta love his rant about “the crimes of capitalism” and “workers heroically staging a work-in against the unfair policies of the American system of capitalism“–they are “merely trying to get their fair share.”Meanwhile, elsewhere (2), the left-libertarians keep playing a type of bait and switch with their terminology. Someone cheers on the return of “militant” unions: when this is objected to, on the grounds that we libertarians oppose union violence, then they crawfish and dance around and say that if one reads thru 17 email chains he’ll see they didn’t mean “violent,” for heaven’s sake. When I object to accusations that companies “expropriate” the “value” of the “efforts” of “stakeholders”–they say by “expropriate” they don’t really mean “expropriate”; and by “stakeholder” they don’t mean what leftists usually mean by it; and by “bargaining power” they don’t mean what leftists usually mean by it.If someone can give me a dictionary to translate it might be helpful.

    Here’s a summary of the discussion so far:

    Long/Carson: “Corporations are imperfect, and thus proprietorships and cooperatives are what would emerge on the free market.”

    Klein: “Proprietorships and cooperatives are also imperfect [various arguments and examples given], so they might not dominate on the free market.”

    Long/Carson: “Yes, but corporations are imperfect!”

  • Published: December 9, 2008 11:08 AM

  • Dan Mahoney
  • Stephan quotes Carson:Carson also relies on “Rothbard’s threshold of calculational chaos”–to argue that “the predominant oligopoly firms in the existing manufacturing sector” must be artificially large since they “are already demonstrably above” this threshold.(He goes on: “Rothbard argued, specifically, that rational calculation becomes impossible whenever no external market exists for an intermediate good. Since, in fact, the majority of intermediate goods used by the typical manufacturing corporation are firm-specific, their transfer prices must be assigned internally rather than based on outside markets.”)

    Carson has a pretty unblemished record of misunderstanding and misapplying Rothbard’s extension of Mises’ calculation argument; I’ve lost track of the number of times he’s done it.

    This is the issue: a large firm engages in several stages of production, call them A, B, C. It has to ask the question: is it cheaper to buy capital goods of type A, to produce capital goods of type B, to be used in the production of good C, as opposed to buying capital goods of type B directly in the market? As long as the firm is not so large as to preclude markets in capital good type B, it will not suffer from calculational chaos. “Firm specificity” is totally beside the point (it would be an empirical claim anyway, that Carson does not support by way of evidence).

  • Published: December 9, 2008 11:10 AM

  • Dan Mahoney
  • I have to voice here a criticism of Prof. Klein: he’s according Carson’s work far, far more respect than it deserves.
  • Published: December 9, 2008 11:17 AM

  • Jeremy
  • Other than Long, most of this is stuck on blogs and self-published e-books.

    So what if it is? What does that have to do with anything? This is just more anti-intellectual argument by smell / feeling. It’s disappointing Misesians resort to such vague tactics when their core values are challenged.

  • Published: December 9, 2008 11:35 AM

  • DixieFlatline
  • Jeremy, odd you would accuse Misesians of being anti-intellectual.Last I checked, Misesians were the only people giving Carson’s views any daylight, even if generally there are a lot of disagreements.
  • Published: December 9, 2008 11:50 AM

  • happylee
  • It seems you two agree on voluntary association. If you want to disagree with him, it should be about the legal differences between a corporation and partnership. Do you believe that corporate personhood is compatible with anarchism?

    Jerusel states the questions correctly. The answer suggests itself.

  • Published: December 9, 2008 11:53 AM

  • Jeremy
  • Jeremy, odd you would accuse Misesians of being anti-intellectual.

    So you think “That ideas makes me feel funny” is a valid intellectual argument?

    Please…

  • Published: December 9, 2008 12:06 PM

  • whittaker
  • “Please, pretty please, with sugar on top…explain to us WHY investors SHOULD be held personally liable for employees or managers?”Certainly. Such a rule would foster closer communication between shareholders and employees, and probably discourage the growth of inefficient mega-corps.In other words, providers of labor and providers of capital might actually start TALKING to each other and working together. What a concept! When was the last time a rank-and-file employee of a 100+ person firm actually talked to a shareholder?

    Do I have all the answers to how far the chain of liability should extend, and how it should depend on the negligent/intentional and tortious/criminal nature of the injury? No. These are the kinds of things that can be (and have been) worked out, case by case, over the years in the development of the common law. The real question is, why should the state make an arbitrary exception to these common-law rules, conditioned on the observance of various obscure formalities (monthly board meetings, etc.) that have no public value. This situation simply ensures that deep-pocketed entities able to afford expensive corporate lawyers can further entrench their advantage over smaller competitors.

  • Published: December 9, 2008 12:13 PM

  • JA
  • What Carson is trying to say is that, in a free market, workers would be able to recieve the full product of their labor as wages; however, the cartelization and oligopoly effects that the state enforces keeps the cost of labor artifically low.Which “workers”? How do you define who is a “worker”? What is the “full value” of labor and how do you measure? What is “low cost” and how do you measure? Are “labor” and “capital” referring to real people or abstract concepts?Is it possible that some “workers” are really exploiting the capitalists…or more likely, other “workers”?
  • Published: December 9, 2008 12:22 PM

  • DixieFlatline
  • So you think “That ideas makes me feel funny” is a valid intellectual argument?

    Jeremy, that’s not what I wrote.

    It’s important in a fruitful debate, to be precise. Carson and Long fail to be precise in their criticisms of business, and many people pick these up and run with them, also without any degree of precision.

    If you want to attribute a position to me, make sure it is a position I hold. Please re-read what I wrote to you, and you can respond to that.

  • Published: December 9, 2008 12:24 PM

  • whittaker
  • “Please, pretty please, with sugar on top…explain to us WHY investors SHOULD be held personally liable for employees or managers?”Certainly. Such a rule would foster closer communication between shareholders and employees, and probably discourage the growth of inefficient mega-corps.In other words, providers of labor and providers of capital might actually start TALKING to each other and working together. What a concept! When was the last time a rank-and-file employee of a 100+ person firm actually talked to a shareholder?

    Do I have all the answers to how far the chain of liability should extend, and how it should depend on the negligent/intentional and tortious/criminal nature of the injury? No. These are the kinds of things that can be (and have been) worked out, case by case, over the years in the development of the common law. The real question is, why should the state make an arbitrary exception to these common-law rules, conditioned on the observance of various obscure formalities (monthly board meetings, etc.) that have no public value. This situation simply ensures that deep-pocketed entities able to afford expensive corporate lawyers can further entrench their advantage over smaller competitors.

  • Published: December 9, 2008 12:29 PM

  • JA
  • Such a rule would foster closer communication between shareholders and employees, and probably discourage the growth of inefficient mega-corps.And this relates to liability (and respect to liberty) how…?In other words, providers of labor and providers of capital might actually start TALKING to each other and working together

    And you have evidence that this does NOT already occur?

    When was the last time a rank-and-file employee of a 100+ person firm actually talked to a shareholder?

    Probably a ga-zillion times in the last year.

    Seriously, is this for real? “Public value”?

  • Published: December 9, 2008 12:33 PM

  • whittaker
  • Mr. Kinsella:”Now, if you want to object to the inability to sue shareholders for vicarious liability for the torts of another, you need to show that the victim *should* be able to sue the shareholders. Should he? If so, why? What exactly is your theory of causation and responsibility?”This kind of thing is addressed in great detail in judicial opinions that form the common law. I’m not saying the common law is perfect, but great effort is expended on trying to explain and justify it.

    By contrast, there is very little explanation or rationale for the mountains of arbitrary corporation statutes that you appear to endorse. By what logic does holding regular board meetings entitle a firm’s shareholders to exemption from vicarious liability — whereas neglecting such formalities suddenly revokes this exemption?

    [Apologies for the double post above].

  • Published: December 9, 2008 12:37 PM

  • whittaker
  • “When was the last time a rank-and-file employee of a 100+ person firm actually talked to a shareholder?Probably a ga-zillion times in the last year.”Please name ONE instance. I have worked for numerous corp’s of various sizes and I have never seen it happen.
  • Published: December 9, 2008 12:40 PM

  • whittaker
  • ” Can I get one of these handy dandy government guarantees for limited liability for my person?As a matter of fact, you can. An individual can incorporate, which makes the position of the Mutualists all the more crankish. A corporation by structure, is not a “big business”.”So why doesn’t everyone do this?

    Actually an individual can incorporate, but only for a “valid business purpose”. Under the scheme you endorse, the benevolent government decides what’s valid. And you usually have to pay lawyers and comply with obscure formalities. What is the logic behind these rules?

  • Published: December 9, 2008 12:46 PM

  • JA
  • Please name ONE instance. I have worked for numerous corp’s of various sizes and I have never seen it happen.Seriously…are you for real?Look up “Analyst Days” and public companies.

    I know numerous people who own firms with 100+ employees…they speak with employees on a daily basis.

    Nevermind the millions of employees who are ALSO shareholders, from public companies to law firms to a group of guys who started a business and continue to work there.

    But lemme guess…these don’t count as “rank and file” right? And “rank and file” — like “worker” or “stakeholder” means whatever fits the moment.

  • Published: December 9, 2008 12:56 PM

  • whittaker
  • No, an owner (if you mean an owner of a substantial percentage) does not count as rank-and-file.Yes, there are corp’s with significant employee ownership, but I don’t think that is a common, nor often effective structure. Typically the people providing the capital are not the same people with the skills and desire to work. I believe that business works best when these two groups of people can work together as partners, with roughly equal economic power.
  • Published: December 9, 2008 1:10 PM

  • JA
  • Define “substantial percentage”?Define who counts as “people with the skills and desire to work”?Define what “business works best” means?

    Define “equal economic power”?

  • Published: December 9, 2008 1:14 PM

  • Mashuri
  • I think what Whitakker is trying to point out (correct me if I’m off base) is that there should be no arbitrary state protection of stakeholders. For example, if it can be proven that shareholders and investors knew of a corporate policy/environment that encouraged and resulted in violations of others’ personal and property rights, they should be held accountable.
  • Published: December 9, 2008 1:20 PM

  • whittaker
  • “I know numerous people who own firms with 100+ employees…they speak with employees on a daily basis.”Sorry, I mis-read “shareholders” for “employees” in this sentence.Do these people speak individually with the rank-and-file, as in two-way dialogue? Or is this just giving speeches? I worked for one 10-person firm where the president refused to speak directly w/ the workers, insisting on going through the chain of command.
  • Published: December 9, 2008 1:25 PM

  • JA
  • For example, if it can be proven that shareholders and investors knew of a corporate policy/environment that encouraged and resulted in violations of others’ personal and property rights, they should be held accountable.Accountable to who? How does “knowing” something translate into responsibility (liability) for others’ actions? What is an “environment” anyway? Is someone voluntarily follows a policy, why is the policy-writer responsible?Do these people speak individually with the rank-and-file, as in two-way dialogue?

    Yes.

  • Published: December 9, 2008 1:30 PM

  • Doctor Whatzit
  • regarding “Please, pretty please, with sugar on top…explain to us WHY investors SHOULD be held personally liable for employees or managers?”Because partners in a partnership would.
  • Published: December 9, 2008 1:49 PM

  • DixieFlatline
  • So why doesn’t everyone do this?

    I dunno. Why does everyone still vote? Why did Obama get elected? Why is Brittney Spears a multi-platinum recording artist? Why does orange juice taste funny after I brush my teeth?

    Actually an individual can incorporate, but only for a “valid business purpose”.

    Uh hunh…

    Under the scheme you endorse, the benevolent government decides what’s valid.

    That’s a strawman. I never said I endorse the state. Care to provide a source for your claim?

    What is the logic behind these rules?

    You want me, an anti-state libertarian, to explain the logic behind the state?The onus is back on the Mutualists to define what is and is not a big business. Obviously, a corporation of one person, is not a big business, and I think at least a few of us would concede that a one man corporation is not likely to be a significant recipient of state privilege.

  • Published: December 9, 2008 2:19 PM

  • Stephan KinsellaAuthor Profile Page
  • Update: The “Freedom Democrats” (allies of the left-libertarian?) falsely accuse me of advocating that these workers be shot. What a lie. I never even implied, this, nor do I believe it (my views on punishment and proportionality are spelled out here). They also accuse me of being a rightwing “paleo” libertarian, which is another bizarre charge (see, e.g., my views on gay marriage and affirmative action, not to mention IP, my shall we say modern views on religion, evolution, and the like, and so on.)
  • Published: December 9, 2008 3:08 PM

  • Mashuri
  • JA,Let’s start with something a little more direct. If a corporation’s President orders his employees to pollute a populated river because a majority of shareholders voted in support of this action, should only the acting employees be held accountable by the river dwellers or should the President and supporting shareholders also share in the liability?
  • Published: December 9, 2008 3:37 PM

  • Stephan KinsellaAuthor Profile Page
  • whittaker:

    “Please, pretty please, with sugar on top…explain to us WHY investors SHOULD be held personally liable for employees or managers?”

    Certainly. Such a rule would foster closer communication between shareholders and employees, and probably discourage the growth of inefficient mega-corps.

    So… we should be against corporations, because they should not have limited liability–which is because the shareholders should be liable… which is because it would be one way to prevent large corporations. Nice circular argument.

    PLUS, it’s utilitarian–sounds like a wealth-maximization coasian types saying we should pick legal rules to maxmize [some given social value]. Terrible. Tsk tsk.

    … Do I have all the answers to how far the chain of liability should extend, and how it should depend on the negligent/intentional and tortious/criminal nature of the injury? No.

    Until you have a sound theory of libertarian causation and responsibility, you cannot criticize the failure of the state to attribute vicarious liability to shareholders for actions of others.

    These are the kinds of things that can be (and have been) worked out, case by case, over the years in the development of the common law. The real question is, why should the state make an arbitrary exception to these common-law rules,

    Show exactly how the common law estalibhses that shareholders are vicariously liable for actions of others–and how this rule is compatible with libertarianism.

    JA:

    Which “workers”? How do you define who is a “worker”? What is the “full value” of labor and how do you measure? What is “low cost” and how do you measure? Are “labor” and “capital” referring to real people or abstract concepts?Is it possible that some “workers” are really exploiting the capitalists…or more likely, other “workers”?

    Yes–the concepts above are largely state classifications–who is an employee, etc. As for exploitation–the state reduced overall prosperity, in general. Everyone is harmed by everyone; this is the problem with the state. In a free market we would be so much richer, there may well be more big AND more small companies, and more diverse types.

    There is nothing wrong with normal libertarians, and left-libertarians having different predictions about what the free market landscape would look like; the problem is the latter are too confident that their very sketchy opinions are firmly established, and b/c of their “thickism” they tie it in too much with political principles. This is their central error. So it’s no longer just a disagreement over predictions–to them, their shaky predictions and personal preferences inform their politics, so it becomes something more.

    whittaker:

    “Now, if you want to object to the inability to sue shareholders for vicarious liability for the torts of another, you need to show that the victim *should* be able to sue the shareholders. Should he? If so, why? What exactly is your theory of causation and responsibility?”This kind of thing is addressed in great detail in judicial opinions that form the common law. I’m not saying the common law is perfect, but great effort is expended on trying to explain and justify it.

    First, you haven’t even shown that the common law clearly requires this. And second, even if you do–we are libertarians, are we not? Show that a given common law rule is justified.

    By contrast, there is very little explanation or rationale for the mountains of arbitrary corporation statutes that you appear to endorse.

    I’m an anarchist. I don’t endorse any statutes. I simply believe that as Hessen has shown people could arrange their affairs similarly in a free market; and that the criticisms of corporations are too often uninformed, confused, or based on mistaken reasoning. I readily agree with the left-libertarians that the state’s granting of an easy way to form corporations might skew the form of entity that direction–who knows. I am as opposed to this as they are. The market is indeed distorted. I am less confident than they of exactly how it’s distorted, or what it would look like absent state intervention; and I certainly disagree with them that we can be confident large corporations could not exist without the state, and that therefore those that exist are illegitimate, their property “unowned” or “expropriated” and the like.

    By what logic does holding regular board meetings entitle a firm’s shareholders to exemption from vicarious liability — whereas neglecting such formalities suddenly revokes this exemption?

    Very little–well, it is based on the type of utilitarian, conseqeuntialist reasoning some anti-corporatists here have been trotting out. But this is not what the anti-corporatards based their reasoning on. They keep yammering about size, and separation of ownership and control, inefficiencies, and limited liability.

  • Published: December 9, 2008 3:38 PM

  • JA
  • If a corporation’s President orders his employees to pollute a populated riverBut how can an executive or investor “order” anyone to do anything? A business is not like a military, where a lawful order is backed by threat of deadly force. Instead, it’s a voluntarily relationship of service for money.In this case, a person chose to pour chemicals into a river for money. I agree with an earlier comment that “employee” is a made-up classification by the State.
  • Published: December 9, 2008 3:46 PM

  • JA
  • Because partners in a partnership would.non sequitur…this does not answer my question.
  • Published: December 9, 2008 3:56 PM

  • Mike
  • “But how can an executive or investor “order” anyone to do anything? A business is not like a military, where a lawful order is backed by threat of deadly force. Instead, it’s a voluntarily relationship of service for money. “Stephan’s actually written pretty extensively disagreeing with this claim.I’m not sure either side has actually come to a satisfactory libertarian theory of agency and culpability. Stephan has claimed that deliberately inciting a riot would make one culpable for the actions of the rioters, so it’s difficult to see how managers paying employees to pollute would be any different.

    I think he’s wrong on the first count but right on the second, but I’ve not fully formed my opinion as to why.

    I think, for example, if you pay someone to murder you are culpable, while if you merely convince them to murder you are not. Obviously the murderer would still be responsible in either case.

    Why is the first different from the second? I think in the first condition you have granted the murderer agency, while in the second you have not. This could, in theory, be extrapolated to hold shareholders accountable for corporate torts, though not in all instances.

    Like I said, I’m still working the idea out. I’d appreciate any criticism/feedback.

  • Published: December 9, 2008 4:11 PM

  • JA
  • This could, in theory, be extrapolated to hold shareholders accountable for corporate torts, though not in all instances.One question is if they have any liability at all. You make some good comments that they do.Another question is if any accountability goes beyond the shares owned in the company by the investor…hence the LIMITED liability part.
  • Published: December 9, 2008 4:21 PM

  • Mike
  • “Another question is if any accountability goes beyond the shares owned in the company by the investor…hence the LIMITED liability part.”Again, I think it depends. If I loan my brother-in-law $1000 to go bet in Vegas, and make it explicit that I am liable only for this $1000, I am not indebted to the casino to cover his gambling debts.If, however, I contribute $1000 to a fund to help my brother-in-law murder his boss, if and when the police come to arrest me, I cannot explain to them “But wait! My brother-in-law and I agreed that my contribution was one of limited liability! I can only be held responsible for my part of the contribution!”

    There is no dispute among libertarians that someone must be fully liable in the case of torts (government does grant limited tort liability, in the name of “tort reform” or “forgiveness,” though I am not familiar enough with corporate law to say whether this is bundled as part of the LLC package). Surely, the agent is liable, for his misdeeds, but the question is when (and if) the principle can also be liable. Or, if you prefer, whether it is accurate to call a shareholder a principle at all, though this opens a can of worms when dealing with the corporate form.

  • Published: December 9, 2008 4:51 PM

  • whittaker
  • “Do these people speak individually with the rank-and-file, as in two-way dialogue?Yes.”OK. Please post their names and addresses so I can send them my résumé. 😉
  • Published: December 9, 2008 5:04 PM

  • whittaker
  • Mr. Kinsella:”I readily agree with the left-libertarians that the state’s granting of an easy way to form corporations might skew the form of entity that direction–who knows. I am as opposed to this as they are. The market is indeed distorted.”If we agree on this much, I’m satisfied. That’s my main point here anyway.
  • Published: December 9, 2008 5:06 PM

  • Stephan KinsellaAuthor Profile Page
  • Mike:

    “Another question is if any accountability goes beyond the shares owned in the company by the investor…hence the LIMITED liability part.”Again, I think it depends. If I loan my brother-in-law $1000 to go bet in Vegas, and make it explicit that I am liable only for this $1000, I am not indebted to the casino to cover his gambling debts.

    If, however, I contribute $1000 to a fund to help my brother-in-law murder his boss, if and when the police come to arrest me, I cannot explain to them “But wait! My brother-in-law and I agreed that my contribution was one of limited liability! I can only be held responsible for my part of the contribution!”

    Sure, but note that your example characterizes your action as using your brother in law as a means to kill someone–you are intending to and trying to commit a crime.

    But is that how you can characterize a shareholder’s act of becoming or being a shareholder? In fact, please note that it’s possible for a corporation to be owned by shareholders, NONE of whom have invested a DIME in the company–they might have bought the shares from original investors.

    Surely, the agent is liable, for his misdeeds, but the question is when (and if) the principle can also be liable.

    And who IS the principal. Is a shareholder a principal? Why?

    Or, if you prefer, whether it is accurate to call a shareholder a principle at all, though this opens a can of worms when dealing with the corporate form.

    You’re getting it.
    whittaker:

    “I readily agree with the left-libertarians that the state’s granting of an easy way to form corporations might skew the form of entity that direction–who knows. I am as opposed to this as they are. The market is indeed distorted.”

    If we agree on this much, I’m satisfied. That’s my main point here anyway.

    Fine, but all but the most vulgar of libertarians realize this fairly trivial point.

  • Published: December 9, 2008 5:33 PM

  • MJP
  • JA:
    “There is nothing wrong with normal libertarians, and left-libertarians having different predictions about what the free market landscape would look like; the problem is the latter are too confident that their very sketchy opinions are firmly established, and b/c of their “thickism” they tie it in too much with political principles. This is their central error. So it’s no longer just a disagreement over predictions–to them, their shaky predictions and personal preferences inform their politics, so it becomes something more.”Tell me – what do you think of those punk roxxor anarchist teenagers who support anarchy because it’s “chaotic”? Is that just a “difference in predictions?” Of course your “prediction” that anarchy can be orderly informs your politics, and is something more than a mere prediction.That’s how we left-libertarians see anarcho-capitalists who insist that the free society would continue to be dominated by large hierarchical corporations. It’s like taking pride in believing that things will get worse after the revolution and you’re badass enough to support it. Either that, or you believe that things would get better because the few who amass great sums of wealth would be super-productive economic Ubermenschen one thousand times more productive than the pathetic average joe can ever dream to be, in which case the burden of proof is on you to show that these Ubermenschen exist. Here’s a hint: they don’t, and the Libertarian Left doesn’t have to prove that they don’t.
  • Published: December 9, 2008 5:57 PM

  • Dan Mahoney
  • MJP’s response indicates that, like all leftists, left-libertarians’ argument isn’t so much with particular institutions like corporations, but with human nature itself.
  • Published: December 9, 2008 6:01 PM

  • MJP
  • “MJP’s response indicates that, like all leftists, left-libertarians’ argument isn’t so much with particular institutions like corporations, but with human nature itself.”So if I deny the existence of demigods, I am arguing against human nature? What is this nonsense?
  • Published: December 9, 2008 6:20 PM

  • Mike
  • “And who IS the principal. Is a shareholder a principal? Why?”Well, my understanding is that the shareholder is generally thought to be the principal, as he is typically referred to as the “owner” of the company. I tend to agree with you that this is problematic, but surely, then, you can understand Carson’s complaint that the ownership of a corporation is poorly defined.Corporate ownership is not a bank loan. The investors didn’t “give” money to the corporation, as you put it earlier, because they are the corporation. At least, that is how it is generally understood.

    If you’re arguing that, in a free market, individuals may loan money to a corporation as a sort of “qualified, indefinite loan,” with dividends being replaced by “interest,” well, that seems possible. But somebody has to own the corporation, and at least be responsible for the official acts the corporation does.

    When we invest in a corporation, as owners, we are essentially granting agency to the managers to manage our money in our best interest. If a company’s business model is to make shoes, and they take that money and use it to kill their competition, then of course they are not using your money or your agency as in a way you had agreed to, and you should not be held responsible. If, on the other hand, their official business model is in some way aggressive, and you invest in them anyway, hoping to profit from their aggression, then I think you should be held responsible, without limit when liability was not contractually limited with third parties.

    So, yes, I think the shareholders are the principal, and employees are the agent, at least most of the time. The question becomes, then, was the employee acting in an “official” capacity when committing the offense in question (a similarly problematic term, I know), or was he acting outside of his official capacity? Or, when is an agent not an agent? When he uses company property in a way that was clearly not permitted by the owners, he is not an agent. When he uses it in a way that clearly is, then he is. The problem, as always, lies in the margins.

  • Published: December 9, 2008 6:48 PM

  • Mike
  • Wow. I apologize for apparently having terrible grammar. But I stand by my assertions.
  • Published: December 9, 2008 6:52 PM

  • whittaker
  • MJP, very interesting formulation. As one who has been a hard-core conservative Republican for over 20 years, I am amazed to find my views now being described as “left-libertarian”.I think that there are certainly individuals who are demi-gods in their fields and revered by some people, but they should not be treated as such in a political, economic or legal sense.
  • Published: December 9, 2008 7:32 PM

  • Dan Mahoney
  • MJP,If you had used the word “demigod” in your original post, I’d have known you’re not be taken seriously, and wouldn’t have bothered responding. My mistake.
  • Published: December 9, 2008 7:46 PM

  • Stephan KinsellaAuthor Profile Page
  • Mike:

    “And who IS the principal. Is a shareholder a principal? Why?”Well, my understanding is that the shareholder is generally thought to be the principal, as he is typically referred to as the “owner” of the company.

    Yes, they are generaly thoguht to be, b/c the state labels them this way. That’s the state’s classification. But ownership is the right to control–here, control is divided between a number of people and subject to private rules that themselves are subject to change by specified procedures. Ownership is relevant here only b/c of the ability of the “owners” to control what is going on–but in this sense, there are any number of people who have influence–from lenders, to customers, to suppliers, employees, unions, local “stakeholders,” and so on.

    I tend to agree with you that this is problematic, but surely, then, you can understand Carson’s complaint that the ownership of a corporation is poorly defined.

    I don’t think it’s poorly defined–it’s just complex. Sorry. I don’t think it’s problematic. Life is complex. Causation is a complex, fact-bound matter. Sure, it’s easy to just rely on the state’s classification of ownership as a black-white way to distinguish, but why is this fair or objective?

    Corporate ownership is not a bank loan. The investors didn’t “give” money to the corporation, as you put it earlier, because they are the corporation. At least, that is how it is generally understood.

    Shareholders are not necessarily investors at all. What if the company gives you stock? What if it’s a gift from an aunt?

    So the shareholder has limited rights: the right to a pro-rata share in assets upon liquidation; and the right to vote for directors. That’s about it. Is this “influence” enough to give them responsibility? What if it’s less significant than the influence of a host of other market actors?

    If you’re arguing that, in a free market, individuals may loan money to a corporation as a sort of “qualified, indefinite loan,” with dividends being replaced by “interest,” well, that seems possible. But somebody has to own the corporation, and at least be responsible for the official acts the corporation does.

     

    I’m arguing that lenders are often more influential over and helpful to a company than is shareholders. Are they responsible too? What about its vendors? customers?

    When we invest in a corporation, as owners,

    Owners are not investors. Invesotrs ae not owners. I might buy IBM stock and give IBM $20. Then I sell the stock. I am the investor, but not an owner. The buyer of the stock is not an investor in IBM (he never gave them money).

    we are essentially granting agency to the managers to manage our money in our best interest. If a company’s business model is to make shoes, and they take that money and use it to kill their competition, then of course they are not using your money or your agency as in a way you had agreed to, and you should not be held responsible. If, on the other hand, their official business model is in some way aggressive, and you invest in them anyway, hoping to profit from their aggression, then I think you should be held responsible, without limit when liability was not contractually limited with third parties.

    agreed, as should be clear from my Causation and Responsibility article. but most shareholders don’t own shares in companies whose official mission is to kill people. We are talking about accidental torts committed by employees of the company, when they are instructed and trained *not* to do this.

  • Published: December 9, 2008 7:59 PM

  • P.M.Lawrence
  • I have slightly edited, rearranged or repeated quotations for continuity, always indicating breaks.Stephan Kinsella wrote ‘…let me just note here a few of the comments, expressions, and assumptions that caught my eye as being problematic from a libertarian and Austrian point of view… As for the comments about management “expropriating” the “efforts” of “stakeholders”–here we have what appears to me to be Marxian reasoning: the “expropriation of efforts”? What? I’d like to see exactly whose “labor” is being “stolen”?’.That “stolen” is made up (and the scare quotes wrongly suggest that Kevin Carson used the term in his post). It would all be a lot clearer to anyone who digested the part where Kevin Carson first introduced it:”… a major problem is that much if not most of the value of the ostensibly shareholder-owned corporation results from the human capital contributed by internal stakeholders, but that this value is not reflected in formal ownership rights. The result is that much of the value created by internal stakeholders is expropriated by management, thus undermining the incentives of human capital to invest its efforts in the organization.” It’s not formally “stolen” because there are no formal ownership rights, and it is unethical to the extent that the constrained lack of choice forced people into that vulnerability (see above about all corporations being the same). “Appropriated” might have been clearer in this respect, but “expropriated” also conveys the idea that these things are taken from people who would otherwise have had them. This also implicitly defines “stakeholder” – a person who would otherwise have had some of that, who contributed to its being there. That doesn’t take tracking through several posts. So “If someone can give me a dictionary to translate it might be helpful” probably wouldn’t work. He had that right in front of him, but a dictionary would just be something else he wouldn’t chase up.

    ‘…libertarianism does not require any “pretense” that “management represents shareholders or that the latter are the owners in any real sense.” It only requires respect for property rights and not interfering in capitalist acts between consenting adults. That is, if you can somehow show that “management” does not “represent” shareholders, or that they are not “the owners” in “any real sense”–so what? Whose rights are being violated? If you don’t like the way a firm is organized, don’t work there; don’t invest in it… I’d like to see exactly whose “labor” is being “stolen”? An employee? Hey, he isn’t compelled to work for them… If [there are] incentive or agency problems that arise when using a given firm structure, presumably people over time will invest in or employ more efficient structures. If they don’t–hey, it’s their money.’

    That’s very “let them eat cake”. The problem is that, with the distortions favouring that, the usual “choice” is as between different firms that are like that. Any colour you like so long as it’s black.

    “If a collection of people (shareholders, directors, managers, creditors) whatever all agree to some complicated internal set of rules that specify their right to control a set of private assets, then *their* rights are not violated (they all agreed to it), and outsiders have no business complaining… Just because some anti-market or anti-capitalist types don’t like the messiness and complexity of the internal rules governing rights of control (ownership) of these assets is utterly irrelevant. You don’t have to work for them, or invest in them….” But that’s not a corporation, it’s a partnership. A corporation has outside (state) help as well, which makes it unlibertarian and outsiders’ business – partly from that restriction of alternatives I just mentioned.

    ‘Again: in libertarianism, the corporation does not need to justify anything–so it does not need to pretend it “represents” anyone’ – oh, yes, it does. It needs to justify all that intervention that brought it into being.

    “If a group of people agree to pool their money and become shareholders, this just means they have agreed to collectively purchase some things with their money, and to have specified rights of control and rights to gain or dividends, that is their business. The consent of the parties is all that is needed to justify it.” But that’s not a corporation, it’s a partnership.

    DixieFlatline writes “…in an anarchist society, anything (including a corporation) can exist if it is voluntary”.

    Actually, a corporation can’t, unless it’s the sort like a monastery or a sports club which has its own internal dynamic to hold it together. Today’s corporations mostly have that state-provided legal fiction stuff to do that.

    “It’s a myth that people will not pool their capital, and create organizational structures and forms to handle management, compensation, and liability” – but the most they can achieve that way is a partnership.

    “…what the state does, can be done contractually and voluntarily in the private market (the basis of Anarcho-Capitalism)… There is a demand for limited liability investment structures…” – almost, but it would be a partnership with de facto limited liability for partners who could lie low (and not all could). So Evan is mistaken too.

    “Now whether you choose to deal with such a firm is up to you. In fact, most people can choose in this society whether or not they will be patrons of corporations. Most do… In a free market, if you don’t like dealing with a firm that limits it’s liability to you, then you won’t engage with them. That’s your right. But in a free market, investors can structure themselves anyway they want, as long as they come to it voluntarily… You are under absolutely no obligation to shop at WalMart, so do not. Very simple. If you don’t like their structure, policies, management, or state privilege, stop shopping there. That is how the market works. Punish them by withdrawing your patronage.” See my earlier remarks about restrictions on choice.

    “Carson and Long fail to be precise in their criticisms of business” – do please go and look. You will find, for instance, that they are not criticising business.

    “The onus is back on the Mutualists to define what is and is not a big business” – rubbish, since that was not what they were talking about.

    “…I think at least a few of us would concede that a one man corporation is not likely to be a significant recipient of state privilege” – then you really should go and check your history. You would soon find out the significance of the “corporation sole” in state establishment of religion.

    Stephan Kinsella mischaracterises partnerships: “You do realize that as soon as there are at least 2 people involved in a firm–eg., a 2-person partnership–each partner has incentives to waste that do not exist in a sole proprietorship. If I own my own shop, then every dollar I spend on a business meal comes off my bottom line. But if I’m 1 of 5 partners, then I might as well order the best steak on a business meal, since I get all the benefit but only 1/5 the cost.” He is confusing the cash flow of paying for that with the drawing down of that partner’s share of the business. That drawing comes off that partner’s entitlements, and shows up in the books. His “summary of the discussion so far” is also a mischaracterisation. Rather than sisk making confusion worse confounded, I suggest people go and read it for themselves.

    Dan Mahoney writes “Carson has a pretty unblemished record of misunderstanding and misapplying Rothbard’s extension of Mises’ calculation argument; I’ve lost track of the number of times he’s done it. This is the issue: a large firm engages in several stages of production, call them A, B, C. It has to ask the question: is it cheaper to buy capital goods of type A, to produce capital goods of type B, to be used in the production of good C, as opposed to buying capital goods of type B directly in the market? As long as the firm is not so large as to preclude markets in capital good type B, it will not suffer from calculational chaos.”

    That is an accurate description of the conditions that would head off the problem – only, Kevin Carson has actually pointed out how large firms do get into that sort of thing. It happens whenever a firm has to decide a transfer price for itself. The very fact that there are problems for tax authorities from transfer pricing means that the tax authorities often don’t have independent reference values they can use to argue with firms’ own claims about prices.

    Stephan Kinsella writes “I simply believe that as Hessen has shown people could arrange their affairs similarly in a free market…”; up to a point, that is correct; however, they would actually be partnerships, which would make a material difference from time to time.

  • Published: December 9, 2008 9:01 PM

  • Dan Mahoney
  • “Transfer price”? Rothbard must be turning in his grave.I’m guessing this is something different from an ordinary price (the meaning of which is clear to most intelligent people)? Seems like a good example of what Stephan pointed out earlier, that the left-libertarians like to use conventional terms (e.g., exploitation), until someone points out a flaw in their reasoning, then more esoteric meanings are claimed to be intended.The arrival of P.M. Lawrence signals that there is no more need to follow this debate.
  • Published: December 9, 2008 9:16 PM

  • P.M.Lawrence
  • The charitable meaning of that would be, “the authority has arrived”, and the uncharitable meaning of that would be, “my mind is made up, do not confuse me with the facts”, with a dash of ad hominem. Either way, you should follow the discussion if only to learn what transfer prices are: prices used between departments or subsidiaries when goods or services move between them but stay within the larger entity. They usually come up these days when they have an effect on tax calculations.
  • Published: December 9, 2008 9:30 PM

  • Jerusen
  • On a side note,My brain hurts trying to keep up. One doesn’t have to wonder why libertarianism will always be an obscure minority among political ideologies. Words are boring. Visual stimulation is the preference of the masses….and the socialists have cornered the market!
  • Published: December 9, 2008 10:11 PM

  • Mike
  • “So the shareholder has limited rights: the right to a pro-rata share in assets upon liquidation; and the right to vote for directors. That’s about it. Is this “influence” enough to give them responsibility? What if it’s less significant than the influence of a host of other market actors?”This is a good point. Maybe I do need to reanalyze the notion of corporate “ownership,” in cases where it is separate from the right to control resources. If this is the case, though, then it would have ramifications further than just corporations. If I rent my car to you, granting you the right control it for a limited duration of time, do you become the “owner” of that car for that time? Ownership then reverts to me upon the expiration of the contract?Setting that aside for a moment, I’d like to explore the notion of agency and culpability a bit more. If A employs B to commit aggression, clearly A is culpable for B’s aggression. If A employs B for some non-aggressive act, but B then uses A’s resources to commit aggressive act, A, it would seem, is not culpable.

    What, however, if A employs B to do whatever C tells him to do? If C commands B to commit aggression, who is culpable here? Clearly B and C are. I know that you would argue that A is not because he lacked intent, but I am not sure intent is necessary for culpability. I can surely commit aggression against you on accident. So what then? What if A suspects B and C are committing aggression, but says nothing because the profits keep rolling in? What if C informs A that he has instructed B to commit aggression, but A says nothing?

    I may have gone off on a tangent here, but these are not rhetorical questions. I’m genuinely curious.

  • Published: December 9, 2008 11:54 PM

  • Stephan Kinsella
  • Mike:”If A employs B for some non-aggressive act, but B then uses A’s resources to commit aggressive act, A, it would seem, is not culpable.”You have just joined the pro-corporation side, since this view would totally eviscerate the notion of respondeat superior and vicarious liability that makes the company responsible for the torts of its employees committed while in the scope of performing their duties. I am not even sure I would go this far.

    “What, however, if A employs B to do whatever C tells him to do? If C commands B to commit aggression, who is culpable here? Clearly B and C are. I know that you would argue that A is not because he lacked intent, but I am not sure intent is necessary for culpability. I can surely commit aggression against you on accident. So what then? What if A suspects B and C are committing aggression, but says nothing because the profits keep rolling in? What if C informs A that he has instructed B to commit aggression, but A says nothing?”

    this is all academic because in almost all cases, the company never wants or orders an underling to commit a crime, or even a tort. They try to get them not to, to avoid liability. The questino is whether the company, or its shareholders, managers, etc., ought to be liable for the torts performed accidentally by one of its employees, even if the company has taken steps to try to prevent him from doing this. For the general framework I would use to analyize particular cases, see my Causation piece linked above.

  • Published: December 10, 2008 1:46 AM

  • TokyoTom
  • Stephan, thanks for your comments.1. Me: “one of the chief purposes and effects of the corporate form is that through it, the state allows owners to sidestep any personal liability for the wrongful acts that their corporation commits”You: It’s only sidestepping if they should have this liability in the first place. Should they?

    Again, you are shifting the burden of proof on the issue. Is there any libertarian argument that the state OUGHT to step in and allow investors to unilaterally shift a portion of the risks of their business venture to others who might be damaged by the activities of the business?

    I don’t believe that there is any such libertarian justification for limited liability. Without the act of state in creating limited liability for shareholders, such limited liability would not exist – except perhaps vis-a-vis creditors and business counterparties who might otherwise agree to limited their claims to the assets of the company, in exchange for agreed methods of risk control or higher prices. However, such limited liability could not otherwise exist as to Involuntary (or “tort”) creditors who without their consent are injured by the corporation, who have not agreed to assume the risk of corporate insolvency and shareholders’ limited liability, and who have neither received ex ante compensation for doing so nor had the opportunity to bargain for contractual safeguards.

    This result seems to be entirely outside of libertarian principles that require voluntary exchanges and eschews takings by force (including by the state), particularly if uncompensated.

    2. Me: “with the result that liability for such wrongful acts is limited to the assets of the corporation.”

    You: This is untrue. Liability on the part of the *person who committed the wrongful act* is unlimited. If an Exxon employee robs your house, you can sue him for all he’s worth.

    Me: My point is that limited liability lets investors entirely off the hook for damages that the wrongful acts of the corporation and its employees. While a few employees might individually be held responsible for their actions, this still may leave many injured persons uncompensated for injuries cause by a corporation’s business activities (many of which it many be impossible to identify a single bad/responsible actor inside the firm: defective products, pollution, etc.).

    Before limited liability corporations were established, the common law doctrine of respondeat superior required investors to bear responsibility for the acts of a business, just as individual proprietors and partnerships remain so liable today.

    3. Me: “Very clearly, limited liability to investors is an act of state, and not something that investors could contract for in advance with the as yet unknown victims of their future torts.”

    You: Now, if you want to object to the inability to sue shareholders for vicarious liability for the torts of another, you need to show that the victim *should* be able to sue the shareholders. Should he? If so, why? What exactly is your theory of causation and responsibility?

    Me: Again, you simply fail to answer my question, and presume that the state action that leaves shareholders free to shift business risks to others is valid and justifiable. Even as you remain unwilling to make your case, I am happy to expand my argument that limited shareholder liability is an unlibertarian grant by the state to shareholders.

    The chief point, of course, is that the creation by the state of corporations limits tort liability to
    individual tortfeasors (if any) and to the corporation itself – up to the value of its assets (after sharing with all other creditors), and frees the owners from liability. This reduces the likelihood that victims will receive full compensation for corporate acts. Unlike an unincorporated entity, the act of the state in authorizing investors to act through corporations thus places the owners (and managers, who are similarly free from liability except for torts they may individually commit) in a position to shift some of the social costs of their business activity on to members of the public who have not agreed to bear those costs.

    Because the shareholders (and employees and managers) bear no responsibility for the full magnitude of costs that coprorate activites may impose on others, as an activity holds some promise of increasing shareholder wealth, limited liability for tort claims creates a moral hazard problem by leaving shareholders (and managers) with the possible upside benefits to such activities without regard for the full magnitude of possible social costs (which might greatly exceed the benefits).

    This results in not simply in an unjust and uncontracted for shifting of risks from tortfeasor corporations to victims, but also inefficient resource allocation decisions – by shifting risks to those least positioned to anticipate or manage them, and by encouraging excessive entry and aggregate overinvestment in hazardous industries while not fully incentivizing investment in precautions.

    Further, the limited liability of the corporate form greatly reduces incentives of shareholders to monitor corporate risk-taking, and frees executives to act in ways that further their own interests without bearing full responsibility for risks that are posed to third parties and to investors (which is quite evident in the activities leading up to the ongoing financial crisis).

    The subject of limited liability has been much discussed recently; may I recommend the following?

    Hansmann, H and Krackman, R, Towards Unlimited Shareholder Liability for Corporate Torts, 100 Yale Law J. 1879 (1991).

    Hansmann, H and Krackman, R, Do the Capital Markets Compel Limited Liability?, 102 Yale L.J. 427 (1992).

    Nina A. Mendelson, A Control-Based Approach to Shareholder Liability for Corporate Torts, 102 COLUM. L. REV. 1203, 1205-06 (2002).

    Timothy P. Glynn, Beyond “Unlimiting” Shareholder Liability: Vicarious Tort Liability for Corporate Officers, 57 Vanderbilt L.Rev. 330 (2004)
    .

  • Published: December 10, 2008 7:43 AM

  • fundamentalist
  • TokyoTom: “I don’t believe that there is any such libertarian justification for limited liability.”The justification would be the issue of control. Common sense says that people who don’t control events aren’t responspible for the results. Look at the LLC, which is a partnership giving limited liability to certain partners, those without control over operations. The partners with control also assume responsibility for the company.The fact that the state authorizes limited liability doesn’t mean it’s right or wrong. We haven’t had the opportunity to test whether limited liability would develop without a state. So until an anarchist state appears, it will be a totally theoretical issue. But I see no reason why courts wouldn’t allow contracts in which some parties had no control over operations. Then, when someone tried to sue a partner or stockholder who had no control, the judge and jury would consider it rather ridiculous to sue someone who had not control over operations. In fact, I doubt that reasonable people would even try to sue such partners. They would look at the situation and ask how it is different from a bond holder. A bond holder has invested money in the company but has no liability for the actions of management. The stock holder, or LLC partner, has no guaranteed income like the bond holder, so in exchange for the extra risk, he gets to vote on who will manage the company, but like the bondholder he has no control over management decisions.
  • Published: December 10, 2008 8:12 AM

  • JA
  • I don’t believe that there is any such libertarian justification for limited liability.Please see here:http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Corporation

    “The defining feature of a corporation is its legal independence from the people who create it. If a corporation fails, shareholders only stand to lose their investment, and employees will lose their jobs, but neither will be liable for debts that remain owing to the corporation’s creditors. This rule is called limited liability, and it is why the names of corporations in the UK end with “Ltd.” (or some variant like “Inc.” and “plc”).”

    Please explain how any of above is NOT libertarian?

    What I find confusing is how this whole conversation started with a promise that “free markets would lead to a prevalence of organizational structures that mutualists like…co-ops, worker-owned firms, etc.”

    But suddenly, when the deficiencies of such organizations are pointed out…that human nature and economics indicate such a “Workers Paradise” isn’t likely…the conversation is shifted toward limited liability for murder-for-hire or polluters-for-hire. Never mind all of the rest of us are talking about normal free market businesses…enterprises which trade on a voluntary basis for profit, violating the rights of none.

    There is also suddenly a shift to the justification for partnerships and sole proprietorships. But this leaves out all the problems of partnerships — what if one partner dies, what if one partner wants to leave, what if all partners want to sell out, what if new investors want a fast exit strategy — the solution is to create a corporate structure and issue shares of the business. This has nothing to do with limited liability. Such a structure can be created without State intervention.

    “The defining feature of a corporation is its legal independence from the people who create it” — i.e. joint stock companies. Again, how is such a form NOT libertarian?

    My point is that limited liability lets investors entirely off the hook for damages that the wrongful acts of the corporation and its employees.

    But the investor IS on the hook to the limit of their investment. They potentially lost all the value of their shares. How is this different than employees losing their jobs or bankers losing their loans or customers losing their service (all of these being LIMITED exposure)?

    You still need to answer WHY the investor is on the hook for more than than the value of their shares, given that some employees were the actual perpetrators (agents) of the violation of others’ rights. Should the other, non-perpetrator employees also be fully responsible simply because they worked there? Why not also other associates — suppliers, customers, lenders? What makes “investment” so special that it requires the investor to bear the full responsibility of other people’s violation of other people’s rights?

    Further, the limited liability of the corporate form greatly reduces incentives of shareholders to monitor corporate risk-taking, and frees executives to act in ways that further their own interests without bearing full responsibility for risks that are posed to third parties and to investors

    Which is why many executives are given shares as part of their incentive packages. Nobody here has claimed that the corporate form offers an “Owner’s Paradise.” Like all things in the real world, there are trade-offs in all circumstances, or it varies market to market. The argument is that A) The corporate form is libertarian, and B) As shown by many here, the corporate form also has advantages — not based on state intervention — over partnerships, sole proprieterships, workers collectives, communes, etc. in MOST cases, which means they will likely still be the prevalent organizational form in a real free market. No doubt other forms will also (still) be common. Even in our statist world, law firms are usually partnerships, there are credit unions and other patron-owned firms, communes, etc.

  • Published: December 10, 2008 8:30 AM

  • fundamentalist
  • PS, to clarify the issue even more, give bondholders the right to elect the board in the bond contract. Bondholders have natural limited liability. With the right to vote on board members, they have become just like owners of preferred stock. So how would a bondholder with the right to vote be any different from a stockholder with limited liability?
  • Published: December 10, 2008 8:30 AM

  • Mike
  • “You have just joined the pro-corporation side, since this view would totally eviscerate the notion of respondeat superior and vicarious liability that makes the company responsible for the torts of its employees committed while in the scope of performing their duties. I am not even sure I would go this far. “Well, no, not necessarily. If I pay you to drive my car to the gas station and get me a gallon of milk, I may not be liable if you get into an accident. But if I pay you to drive my car around all crazy-like, and you get into an accident, I might be. Whether my liability would be “limited” in this case assumes I am only liable to you, but I am not sure this is clear. You seem to be saying that my liability is a matter of due diligence, but this seems subjective.If I did not do due diligence in hiring someone to go get me a gallon of milk (say I hired someone with a known bad driving record) could I then be held responsible? If so, what is the logic in limiting my responsibility?
  • Published: December 10, 2008 8:34 AM

  • JA
  • It’s like taking pride in believing that things will get worse after the revolution and you’re badass enough to support it. Either that, or you believe that things would get better because the few who amass great sums of wealthSorry…but as a libertarian, I don’t really care if “society” or the “working man” or “average Joe” or “labour” gets better or worse.My libertarianism is based on a moral duty to not violate the legitimate rights of others. It’s not based on a promise of Utopia or a Worker’s Paradise.

    Further, I think for some of the “working class,” a free market will be a bad deal. Many self described “workers” don’t want the risks of ownership, they want benefits and high wages, guaranteed by the State. They want to pollute a river and blame someone else for it, because “it’s not their fault, they were just following orders.” Having to compete on skill or service alone is scary to them, which is probably why most “working class” folks are socialist to the bone.

  • Published: December 10, 2008 8:41 AM

  • Mike
  • “Sorry…but as a libertarian, I don’t really care if “society” or the “working man” or “average Joe” or “labour” gets better or worse.My libertarianism is based on a moral duty to not violate the legitimate rights of others. It’s not based on a promise of Utopia or a Worker’s Paradise.Further, I think for some of the “working class,” a free market will be a bad deal. Many self described “workers” don’t want the risks of ownership, they want benefits and high wages, guaranteed by the State. They want to pollute a river and blame someone else for it, because “it’s not their fault, they were just following orders.” Having to compete on skill or service alone is scary to them, which is probably why most “working class” folks are socialist to the bone.”

    See, this is why people don’t like us. Libertarianism does not require that you be a solipsist.

  • Published: December 10, 2008 8:51 AM

  • JA
  • See, this is why people don’t like us.Indeed. That’s why I asked if left-libertarianism was a really just a marketing ploy to sell normal libertarianism to leftists, using socialist-sounding language. If that’s the case, it isn’t going to work for many of the reasons I described, but I wouldn’t be so suspicious.My gut tells me it’s the other way though…a marketing ploy to sell real socialism to libertarians, especially when I read comments on the Carson blog to the effect that “left-libertarians believe corporations = companies, and left-libertarians are anti-corporation.”
  • Published: December 10, 2008 8:58 AM

  • Mike
  • You’re assuming some nefarious motivation behind the ideology. Can’t it just be that this is what some people believe? I don’t think anyone’s trying to sell anything.
  • Published: December 10, 2008 9:36 AM

  • JA
  • You’re assuming some nefarious motivation behind the ideology. Can’t it just be that this is what some people believe?Why is selling considered nefarious? I already admitted it’s possible that they just have weird beliefs, but it isn’t possible to take Mises and Rothbard’s premises and come up with mutualist conclusions. The only people who seem to be doing it are just two people (Long and Carson), so it doesn’t seem to be a intellectual (dialectal?) tradition.
  • Published: December 10, 2008 9:43 AM

  • Vulgar Libertarian
  • Klein and Kinsella,While I admire your patience, please stop taking these “left-libertarians” seriously. Their arguments are atrocious (“Dilbert”, “Walmart is the state”, etc). Why give so much attention to these guys? They’re clearly not worthy of your time.A lot of people have an aesthetic revulsion to “bigness”. It doesn’t matter if the bigness is moral and efficient; it’s still bigness. These left-libertarians are a subset of these people who will manipulate any argument to suit their anti-bigness aesthetics. The very word “vulgar” betrays the aesthetic motive.

    They call the Mises Institute “vulgar libertarians”. When has the MI ever support tariffs, subsidies, bailouts, etc? If anything, the MI has been the strongest critic of managed trade, always supporting true free trade. Yet the MI is vulgar?

    Seriously, why bother? Kevin Carson believes in the Labor Theory of Value. He thinks interest wouldn’t exist in a free market. The entire left-libertarian “movement” ignores the fundamental assumption of modern economics, Austrian or otherwise: methodological individualism. They really and truly believe the economy is a battle between bosses and workers.

    Why take the time to argue against these obviously obselete ideas? It’s 2008, not 1850. Economics has moved on. They haven’t. Most biologists don’t give the time of day to Lamarkians, and you shouldn’t spend another minute arguing against “Mutualists”.

  • Published: December 10, 2008 10:00 AM

  • Mike
  • “Why is selling considered nefarious? I already admitted it’s possible that they just have weird beliefs, but it isn’t possible to take Mises and Rothbard’s premises and come up with mutualist conclusions. The only people who seem to be doing it are just two people (Long and Carson), so it doesn’t seem to be a intellectual (dialectal?) tradition. “First of all, I doubt Long would refer to himself as a mutualist. He wrote a pretty thorough critique of the mutualist “use and occupancy” theory of ownership.Second, there was something about your phrasing, “trying to sell X to Y,” that implied intellectual dishonesty on the part of the seller.
  • Published: December 10, 2008 10:05 AM

  • Mike
  • Stephan,I’m starting to come around to your notion of the individual tortfeasor being responsible for torts, with any collaborating agents being responsible as well, and non-collaborators being responsible only so far as they have agreed to be. I suppose in this sense shareholders can almost be seen as insurance providers for the acting agents.The problem is with the way corporate personhood distorts claims in our current market. Bob Murphy wrote a piece on this, but I can’t remember where I saw it.

    If a UPS truck driver’s brakes go out and he hits me with his truck, and I try to sue him, he says “Don’t sue me! My boss ordered a faulty truck! Sue him!” I try to sue the boss and he says “I didn’t know the truck was faulty! Besides, I was only acting as an agent of the UPS corporation! Sue them!” If I then try to turn around and sue UPS, they say “But our liability is limited!” But somebody’s got to pay. In our current market, limited liability can result in absolution of liability (I’m thinking specifically of pollution cases, airplane crashes, etc.), which is surely not libertarian.

    If the question becomes “Who is at fault, and to what extent did other parties agree to cover his fault?” then this does seem libertarian. Oftentimes, however, this is not how these cases play out.

  • Published: December 10, 2008 10:26 AM

  • JA
  • If I then try to turn around and sue UPS, they say “But our liability is limited!” But somebody’s got to pay.This is a weird scenario. People sue companies all the time. The question is if UPS investors or shareholders should bear liability BEYOND what they own as shares.Limited liability does NOT mean “100% Free from Liability.” It means liability is LIMITED to the owners’ ownership in the company. Just as lenders are limited in that they only lose their loan, and employees are limited in that they only lose their jobs.

    Even in today’s world, an attack on corporations because “limited liability = absolution of liability” is a straw man, since this isn’t the case.

    Now, there might be circumstances where the company’s damages exceed the total assets of the firm (a company explodes an entire town by accident, to keep in the vein of the “realistic examples” cite here by many), so liquidating the firm won’t be enough to cover the debt. In these cases, I’m not sure if it’s libertarian to go after the shareholders beyond their share ownership. Ultimately all liability…for individuals, as well as partnerships and co-ops, are limited by the ability to pay.

  • Published: December 10, 2008 10:40 AM

  • Mike
  • “In these cases, I’m not sure if it’s libertarian to go after the shareholders beyond their share ownership.”I’m not either. In fact I’m starting to come around to the idea that it’s not. Still, someone has to have unlimited liability.”Ultimately all liability…for individuals, as well as partnerships and co-ops, are limited by the ability to pay. ”

    This is not really true. If an individual actor accidentally blows up a city, he is liable for all the damage he causes, whether he can pay it or not. There are different approaches as to how he should pay it back, but an inability to pay does not excuse one from responsibility (yes, I am aware that this is an absurd hypothetical, but absurd hypotheticals are worth exploring when they can help us form our analysis).

  • Published: December 10, 2008 10:52 AM

  • TokyoTom
  • Roger,The justification would be the issue of control. Common sense says that people who don’t control events aren’t responspible for the results. Look at the LLC, which is a partnership giving limited liability to certain partners, those without control over operations. The partners with control also assume responsibility for the company.It appears that you are confusing LLCs (limited liaibility corporations that are treated as partnerships for tax purposes) with Limited Partnerships, but it seems you are agreeing that the managing partner ought to have unlimited liability (to “assume responsibility for the company”). In corporations, by government fiat none of the owners has unlimited liability, and the lack of control that investors or their transferees typically have is a reflection of that limited liability. Of course it is possible for shareholders to have actual control, whether in the case of close corporations or even large public ones, and courts sometimes “pierce the corporate veil” (very sporadically) to hold shareholders responsible for bad acts despite legal niceties.

    The fact that the state authorizes limited liability doesn’t mean it’s right or wrong. We haven’t had the opportunity to test whether limited liability would develop without a state. So until an anarchist state appears, it will be a totally theoretical issue. But I see no reason why courts wouldn’t allow contracts in which some parties had no control over operations.

    Corporations are creatures of the state that could not exist in their current form without a transfer of risk that is neither voluntary nor fully compensated.

    There is nothing objectionable in excluding bondholders or other voluntary creditors from unlimited liability; they can bargain for limited risks and certain controls over corporate action. The question is whether it is consistent with libertarian principles to limit the liability of ALL investors to those who are subjected unwillingly to damage resulting from the torts of the corporation.

    While I am sympathetic to common investors in public corporations, who have bargained for the situations they find themselves in, and not for unlimited liability, the question of where we go from here is logically distinct from the question as to whether the course to the present situation is one that comports with libertarian principles.

    It seems to me that it does not, and that we face any number of undesirable consequences as a result – not merely a shifting of risks to citizens that finds its counterpart in citizen pressure groups, but in a bifurcation of ownership and control that provides ample opportunity for executives to loot their firms. These come on top of the problems with rent-seeking and politicization that tie in with the growth of big government.

  • Published: December 10, 2008 11:14 AM

  • Mashuri
  • JA wrote,
    “But how can an executive or investor “order” anyone to do anything? A business is not like a military, where a lawful order is backed by threat of deadly force. Instead, it’s a voluntarily relationship of service for money.”
    All authority carries a threat behind it. Authority in business threatens insubordination with termination. Question, since our military typically punishes insubordination with court marshall, and not death, should a commander who orders the execution of what he knows are innocent people, but does not participate in the action himself, not be held accountable?
  • Published: December 10, 2008 12:00 PM

  • JA
  • What is missing from all this is:Very few firms fail because of damages from torts.Nearly all firms fail because they are unprofitable.

    So it’s fun to speculate about killer UPS drivers and Mr. Burns polluting rivers…but nearly all of the “limited liability” is about limited exposure to those voluntarily connected with the business.

    When a corporation goes out of business, the shareholders are limited to their investment when paying off all contractual obligations. A banker can’t go after an investor’s personal assets to pay off the corporation’s loan. Someone with an employment contract can’t go after an investor to get the rest of the contract, or a customer with a service contract, or a supplier who is owed money. All of these examples voluntarily took the risk of doing business with the corp. though contacting with the entity.

    It’s really this simple. The huffing and puffing of on torts and “bifurcation of ownership and control that provides ample opportunity for executives to loot their firms” etc. is really just that.

  • Published: December 10, 2008 12:05 PM

  • JA
  • Authority in business threatens insubordination with termination.A dissolution of a voluntary relationship by one party is not the same as the violent threat within the structure of military dicipline. Neither is an order from a policeman holding a revolver against your head the same as a request from a manager to an employee to not lick the french fries or else find other employment.The employee can always quit. Hence, a request from an employer to an employee is not an “order.”
  • Published: December 10, 2008 12:10 PM

  • Stephan KinsellaAuthor Profile Page
  • TokyoTom:

    Is there any libertarian argument that the state OUGHT to step in and allow investors to unilaterally shift a portion of the risks of their business venture to others who might be damaged by the activities of the business?

    No, and the state should not exist. But people criticize corporations as being *mere* creatures of the state on the grounds that the state gives them privileges that would not exist in the free market.

    I don’t believe that there is any such libertarian justification for limited liability. Without the act of state in creating limited liability for shareholders, such limited liability would not exist – except perhaps vis-a-vis creditors and business counterparties who might otherwise agree to limited their claims to the assets of the company, in exchange for agreed methods of risk control or higher prices. However, such limited liability could not otherwise exist as to Involuntary (or “tort”) creditors who without their consent are injured by the corporation, who have not agreed to assume the risk of corporate insolvency and shareholders’ limited liability, and who have neither received ex ante compensation for doing so nor had the opportunity to bargain for contractual safeguards.

    Again: the question is, absent the state, should shareholders be vicariously liable for torts committed by employees, or not? The presumption is they should not, since they did not commit the acts–unless you can come up with a sound argument for why they should (and pointing to the way it’s been done before doesn’t cut it).

    My point is that limited liability lets investors entirely off the hook for damages that the wrongful acts of the corporation and its employees.

    While a few employees might individually be held responsible for their actions, this still may leave many injured persons uncompensated for injuries cause by a corporation’s business activities

    You are assuming the “business activities” are “the cause”. This is question begging.

    Before limited liability corporations were established, the common law doctrine of respondeat superior required investors to bear responsibility for the acts of a business, just as individual proprietors and partnerships remain so liable today.

    Why should they be? Because the common law says so?

    You: Now, if you want to object to the inability to sue shareholders for vicarious liability for the torts of another, you need to show that the victim *should* be able to sue the shareholders. Should he? If so, why? What exactly is your theory of causation and responsibility?

     

    Me: Again, you simply fail to answer my question, and presume that the state action that leaves shareholders free to shift business risks to others is valid and justifiable. Even as you remain unwilling to make your case, I am happy to expand my argument that limited shareholder liability is an unlibertarian grant by the state to shareholders.

    You need to explain why shareholders should be liable. You keep calling them investors–shareholders are usually not investors.

    The chief point, of course, is that the creation by the state of corporations limits tort liability to individual tortfeasors

    It limits state-imposed vicarious tort liability. If the state stops taxing you, this is good, because it should not be taxing you in the first place. If the state stops imposing vicarious tort liability on shareholders, this is also good, if it should not be doing this in the first place. You seem to assume they should. why?

    This reduces the likelihood that victims will receive full compensation for corporate acts.

    If a FedEx driver negligently crashes into you, why arey ou calling it a “corporate act”? He was not directed to do this by FedEx, was he? Why is his negligence theirs?

    In any event–this whole critique is ridiculous. Whenever a corporation’s employee commits a tort, the victim is compensated by the corporation or its insurer. IT’s almost always irrelevant that he can’t sue shareholders individually. Even if they could, shareholders could simply purchase shareholder-liability-insurance, no biggie.

    fundamentalist:

    PS, to clarify the issue even more, give bondholders the right to elect the board in the bond contract. Bondholders have natural limited liability. With the right to vote on board members, they have become just like owners of preferred stock.

    Yes, this is my point about overreliance on state classifications. What it means to be a “shareolder” is (a) a right to receive a pro-rata share of assets upon liquidation, and dividends, IF they are paid; and (b) a right to vote for directors.

    Why does having these two rights automatically mean vicarious liability?
    Mike:

    “In these cases, I’m not sure if it’s libertarian to go after the shareholders beyond their share ownership.”

    I’m not either. In fact I’m starting to come around to the idea that it’s not. Still, someone has to have unlimited liability.

    Yes–the guy who commits the tort. Who would have insurance/indemnity from the compamy. The company would have insurance too if it’s vicariously liable. If you hold shareholders liable,they would start obtaining insurance too. And presumably most people would have “uninsured motorist” type insurance in case a deadbeat, uninsured corporation harms them and can’t pay for their damages.

    Tokyotom:

    The question is whether it is consistent with libertarian principles to limit the liability of ALL investors to those who are subjected unwillingly to damage resulting from the torts of the corporation.

    You keep calilng shareholders “investors”. They need not be. And the question is whether they should have vicarious liabiltiy or not.

  • Published: December 10, 2008 12:13 PM

  • fundamentalist
  • TokyoTom: “It seems to me that it does not, and that we face any number of undesirable consequences as a result – not merely a shifting of risks to citizens that finds its counterpart in citizen pressure groups, but in a bifurcation of ownership and control that provides ample opportunity for executives to loot their firms. These come on top of the problems with rent-seeking and politicization that tie in with the growth of big government.”I agree with you completely that the behavior of executives in a lot of corporations is disgusting. I just don’t agree that such behavior is caused by the corporate structure. Some of it is just the natural inclination of people to greed. But much of it is caused by the state’s control over the economy. If you get the state out of the economy, corp execs will have little reason to bribe them for special treatment. Anyway, your argument is based on the disgusting behavior of some execs and not necessarily on principle.As for following libertarian principles, I don’t see why limited liability violates any of them. I think some of the problem comes from people getting hung up on the word ownership. Stockholders are not owners in the normal sense of the word. Ownership means control; without control their is no ownership. As a result, stockholders do not own a corporation. They have none of the control of owners. They are no more owners than are bondholders. Stock ownership is a hybrid type of ownership somewhere between a partnership and a bondholder.

    As I mentioned, libertarian principles underscore the right of contract. Promoters and investors can draw up any contract that doesn’t violate the property of others. Even in anarchy, stock in a corp would be just such a contract. The stock ownership contract only removes control of the company from the investor. It does not guarantee limited liability.
    Whether or not the stockholder has limited liability has nothing to do with the contract. It is a law issue and natural law has never held people responsible for actions they had no control over. So under libertarian concepts of contract and natural law, I don’t see why some type of corporation with limited liability wouldn’t develop.

    Peter Drucker once said that boards of directors are asleep at the wheel. I’m no expert in business law, but it seems to me that the board has fudiciary responsibility to protect the interests of shareholders, but they do a poor job of it. In addition to going after execs, like those at Enron, the law ought to go after all board members when management commits crimes.

    But you can’t stop people from committing crimes, even managers of corporations. That’s part of human nature that can’t change. As with Enron, the market punishes stock holders for such criminal behavior and the law punishes the execs. Stockholders should be diversified in case execs commit such crimes.

    The question is whether or not the corporate structure causes the crime, or at least encourages it. As it currently stands, I think it does encourage it because boards of directors are asleep at the wheel. If board members did their jobs, there would be a lot less disgusting, immoral and illegal behavior on the part of execs. The solution is to punish board members along with the execs.

    At the same time, let’s put the situation in perspective. We have tens of thousands of corporations. How many have been guilty of immoral or criminal behavior? Just a handful. We need to compare the behavior of corporations with that of privately owned companies to see if corporations are worse. And do we really want to resort to group punishment, as SOX does, for the behavior of a few?

  • Published: December 10, 2008 12:26 PM

  • jp
  • I’d love to deal with a bank with full liability because in case of failure shareholders would have to repay me for the full amount I deposited. Unfortunately I can’t deal with a fully liable bank because (in Canada at least) the government has legislated that all banks must take on the limited liability corporate form.Canada has a long tradition of fully liable banks, but by the late 1800s these were being forced to officially incorporate and adopt limited liability. Kinsella, the eternal apologist for limited liability, seems to characterize today’s LL dominance as the end result of natural market processes. He doesn’t understand that in situations like the one illustrated, limited liability nature was forced on banks by the state and by extension on those who dealt with them, the depositors.This huge subsidization of LL for banks is unfortunate as it has cut down on consumer choice. Where are the double liable banks we’d prefer to deal with? Where are the fully liable ones? They’ve been cut out of the picture by government LL legislation. Not by natural market forces.
  • Published: December 10, 2008 12:54 PM

  • Mashuri
  • JP Wrote:A dissolution of a voluntary relationship by one party is not the same as the violent threat within the structure of military dicipline. Neither is an order from a policeman holding a revolver against your head the same as a request from a manager to an employee to not lick the french fries or else find other employment.The employee can always quit. Hence, a request from an employer to an employee is not an “order.”

    A one-sided threat to dissolve a voluntary relationship has coercive power over the party that does not want that relationship to dissolve. The policeman holding a revolver to my head is coercing me by threatening to take something of value from me: My life. A company owner telling a contractor, who wants to keep his contract active, that he will be terminated if he doesn’t do as ordered is also being coerced via threat of having something of value taken from him.

  • Published: December 10, 2008 3:11 PM

  • JA
  • A one-sided threat to dissolve a voluntary relationship has coercive power over the party that does not want that relationship to dissolve.You are distorting the word coercive. The essence of a voluntarily relationship is that either party can decide to dissolve.The policeman holding a revolver to my head is coercing me by threatening to take something of value from me: My life

    No, he is threatening (coercing) you with a revolver. In such as case, you have no rational choice but to comply.

    The rest of your post is a Non Sequitur, as you haven’t proved that violent threats are the same as voluntary dissolution of a relationship. A child understands voluntary relationships are different than threat of deadly force, yet you can’t get it?

    Further, contracts have nothing to do with value. By definition, any party can dissolve the contract at any time for whatever reason (though the dissolution may include final contractual obligations).

  • Published: December 10, 2008 3:24 PM

  • Mashuri
  • I assume JP and JA are the same person?Before I get into a semantic battle over the meaning of coercion, I want to clarify your position. The system of accountability you seem to be preaching would make a nice loophole for cult leaders to operate with impunity. Charles Manson, whose “Family” followed his commands without being threatened should still be a free man, correct?
  • Published: December 10, 2008 3:31 PM

  • JA
  • Charles Manson took an active (planning) role in murdering people.He is guilty of murder. Being a “cult leader” is not a crime.
  • Published: December 10, 2008 3:49 PM

  • Mike
  • “Charles Manson took an active (planning) role in murdering people. “I think this is a distinction without a differentiation. An employer who orders an underling to commit aggression is not taking an active role in that aggression?
  • Published: December 10, 2008 4:00 PM

  • Yancey Ward
  • One falling into this debate from the outside needs to understand something about mutualists like Carson- they don’t think you should own capital you are not working with yourself. JA is exactly correct- they are socialists/communists masquerading in libertarian clothing. Every argument they advance has a single, solitary goal- the dimunition of the principle of physical property ownership. This is why the language of debate keeps getting distorted whenever one engages with them. The principle they are attempting to advance is use it or lose it. To support this, one must completely invalidate the principle of voluntary contracts, and mutualists do this through a variety of methods, but the most common (and seen in several instances in this thread alone) is to change the meaning of voluntary to coerced.
  • Published: December 10, 2008 5:26 PM

  • TokyoTom
  • Stephan, allow me to clarify further:TT: “Is there any libertarian argument that the state OUGHT to step in and allow investors to unilaterally shift a portion of the risks of their business venture to others who might be damaged by the activities of the business?”SK: No, and the state should not exist. But people criticize corporations as being *mere* creatures of the state on the grounds that the state gives them privileges that would not exist in the free market.

    TT: My point is simply that there is no libertarian argument that the state OUGHT to step in and allow investors to unilaterally shift a portion of the risks of their business venture to others who might be damaged by the activities of the business. I’m glad that you agree, and am puzzled that you do not acknowledge that the state grant of limited liability to investors (and to transferees of such investors) in corporations constitutes an uncontracted-for shifting of risks to investors from victims of corporate torts.

    TT: “Without the act of state in creating limited liability for shareholders, such limited liability would not exist – except perhaps vis-a-vis creditors and business counterparties who might otherwise agree to limited their claims to the assets of the company, in exchange for agreed methods of risk control or higher prices. However, such limited liability could not otherwise exist as to Involuntary (or “tort”) creditors who without their consent are injured by the corporation, who have not agreed to assume the risk of corporate insolvency and shareholders’ limited liability, and who have neither received ex ante compensation for doing so nor had the opportunity to bargain for contractual safeguards.”

    SK: Again: the question is, absent the state, should shareholders be vicariously liable for torts committed by employees, or not? The presumption is they should not, since they did not commit the acts–unless you can come up with a sound argument for why they should (and pointing to the way it’s been done before doesn’t cut it).

    TT: Stephan, again you refuse to actually advance a justification for the government grant of limited liability to shareholders (indeed, you concede that, there is no libertarian argument for such a state grant), but simply argue for the status quo, on the grounds that shareholders don’t typically themselves do not commit the torts.
    If there is no libertarian grounds for the use of government fiat to limit the liability that shareholders bear for the risks that the activities of the business might injure others, then surely the “presumption” you offer should be reversed, and you should advance a case that whether those who are injured by business enterprises should justly be forced to assume the risk that their ability to make claims against the assets of the business owners depends upon whether the business happens to be a sole proprietorship, a partnership or limited liability corporation.

    You state that “the question is, absent the state, should shareholders be vicariously liable for torts committed by employees, or not?”, presume that shareholders should have no liability as principals for acts of the corporation “because they did not commit the acts”, and then ask me to advance arguments that shareholders should be held responsible for the acts of corporations. I disagree, note that your formulations dodge a number of issues, and note further that you have completely ignored the arguments that I and others have advanced for unlimited shareholder liability (prominently, the two Yale LJ articles and the Vanderbilt L Rev article).

    Time for you to start doing some of the work.

    TT: “My point is that limited liability lets investors entirely off the hook for damages that the wrongful acts of the corporation and its employees. While a few employees might individually be held responsible for their actions, this still may leave many injured persons uncompensated for injuries cause by a corporation’s business activities”

    SK: You are assuming the “business activities” are “the cause”. This is question begging.

    TT: Well said, Artful Dodger, but it’s not me who’s begging the questions. Putting aside (i) the question of the scope of vicarious liability WITHIN the firm and (ii) cases where there is a only one a single injured party and a single employee committing an unauthorized tort, it is undeniable that small, medium and large corporations have in the past and continue from time to time to commit large-scale torts – in the form of pollution, dumping of waste, defective products, other personal injuries, slander and the like – that arise directly from their business activities. In most such cases, no single individual tortfeasor within the corporation can be identified. Clearly, in some such cases a few employees might individually be held responsible for their actions, this still may leave many injured persons incompletely uncompensated for injuries caused by a corporation’s business activities.

    TT: “Before limited liability corporations were established, the common law doctrine of respondeat superior required investors to bear responsibility for the acts of a business, just as individual proprietors and partnerships remain so liable today.”

    SK: Why should they be? Because the common law says so?

    TT: No; sole proprietors and partnerships have been and remain liable for the acts of a business because it is unjust to allow them to externalize a significant portion of the risks of their activities, while capturing the benefits of those risks. The state, by providing the corporate form, allows the externalization of such risks on a vast scale, and continues to do so by further making limited liability available for those who prefer to be taxed as partners. But to reverse the question, perhaps you care to point to libertarian principles or a common law doctrines (which libertarians frequently point to as a valid basis for determining the scope of ownership rights and who should be responsible for injuries caused to others) that would justify a position that those who own and operate businesses ought NOT to be responsible for the damages those business activities cause, beyond the assets of the business?

    TT: “Again, you simply …. presume that the state action that leaves shareholders free to shift business risks to others is valid and justifiable. Even as you remain unwilling to make your case, I am happy to expand my argument that limited shareholder liability is an unlibertarian grant by the state to shareholders.”

    SK: You need to explain why shareholders should be liable. You keep calling them investors–shareholders are usually not investors.

    TT: Again, you are nonresponsive. Perhaps you should pick fewer nits and acknowledge the bigger picture. For small corporations, start-ups, and corporations raising capital, the shareholders typically are investors. Moreover, for small firms, closely-held firms (including large LBOs) and even for many large firms, there are major shareholders that are also clearly “owners”. You have advanced no libertarian or other argument that justifies limiting the liability of investors and owners at all for the torts of corporations; much less for your implied position that investors and owners should be able to freely slough-off any vicarious responsibility for damages to victims of corporate acts by the simple expedient of selling their shares to others (who, while they do not directly fund the company, are certainly investing in ownership of the same set of assets and liabilities as the initial investors).

    TT: “The chief point, of course, is that the creation by the state of corporations limits tort liability to individual tortfeasors”

    SK: It limits state-imposed vicarious tort liability. If the state stops taxing you, this is good, because it should not be taxing you in the first place. If the state stops imposing vicarious tort liability on shareholders, this is also good, if it should not be doing this in the first place. You seem to assume they should. why?

    TT: Where does “the state” impose vicarious tort liability? Respondeat superior is largely an old and evolving part of the common law. I don’t agree with all cases, but individual judgments are hardly the same as the state acting by law to free shareholders from liability above the amount they paid for the shares for the risks generated by corporate activities.

    TT: “This reduces the likelihood that victims will receive full compensation for corporate acts.”

    SK: If a FedEx driver negligently crashes into you, why arey ou calling it a “corporate act”? He was not directed to do this by FedEx, was he? Why is his negligence theirs?

    In any event–this whole critique is ridiculous. Whenever a corporation’s employee commits a tort, the victim is compensated by the corporation or its insurer. IT’s almost always irrelevant that he can’t sue shareholders individually. Even if they could, shareholders could simply purchase shareholder-liability-insurance, no biggie.

    TT: “Ridiculous”? Nonsense! There, are we even now?

    The grant of limited liability to involuntary creditors cannot be justified on libertarian grounds, and arguments I have noted regarding efficiency, moral hazards, equity, the disincentives for shareholders to closely monitor firms, the relative freedom of managers and executives to loot, and the related rise of citizen pressure groups to seek to have governments provide checks are all substantial and important.

    While there are many cases where injured persons are compensated, there are many cases where corporations have generated widespread risks and failed, leaving countless others holding the bag, while investors (and managers) may have profited and then exited without substantial loss. The limited liability grant actually encourages such behavior.

    You say that, if victims could “sue shareholders individually”, in which case “shareholders could simply purchase shareholder-liability-insurance, no biggie”. I heartily agree – a system of pro rata shareholder unlimited liability would work (as one of the law journal articles argues), as well as being more just. I appreciate the concession – so have you stopped fighting this point?

    Regards.

  • Published: December 11, 2008 3:42 AM

  • JA
  • An employer who orders an underling to commit aggression is not taking an active role in that aggression?What I dispute is this is an “order.”It’s not an order. It’s a mutual agreement.

    “Underling” is another meaningless word outside of serfdom or the military, both institutions based on violent threat. The employee-employer is an equal agreement of mutual service (trading labor for money).

  • Published: December 11, 2008 8:10 AM

  • JA
  • Kevin Carson believes in the Labor Theory of Value.Is this true?If so, it relates to my earlier questions. How can Carson use Rothbard and Mises’ calculation argument against large firms (whatever “large” means)…when he disregards the very premises of the Calculation Argument by holding the false “labor theory of value”?

    The Calculation Argument presupposes marginal utility, Austrian price theory, etc. If the Labor Theory of Value is true (and it’s not), then the Austrian “Calculation Argument ” makes no sense!

    Is Carson just making up a “Cargo Cult” of ideas, completely unrelated by logic or reason (i.e. he’s just a crank weirdo), or is he trying to attract normal libertarians to his socialist ideas by throwing in Rothbard and Mises, even though neither man’s idea make any sense when connected to the Labor Theory of Value.

  • Published: December 11, 2008 9:48 AM

  • Mike
  • TT:I’m trying to decide what I should think about limited liability. Could you give me a couple of specific examples (hypotheticals are fine) of the kinds of corporate acts that limited liability presently protects but which you think shareholders should correctly be accountable for beyond the pro-rata share of the firm’s assets and income? Also, in your mind, would shareholders have to be shown to have been aware of the acts in question, or would they be responsible for all of the decisions of management — even those “off the radar screen”?Thanks!
  • Published: December 11, 2008 3:43 PM

  • Mike
  • JA:Carson does accept the validity of some form of the LTV, but not in the way you might think of it. Part 1 of his book details this thoughts on value theory. There is also a fair synopsis in Robert Murphy’s critique of Carson in the Journal of Libertarian Studies. You’ll find that despite Murphy’s objections, there is a lot to Carson’s thought that is consistent with Austrian economics. I don’t think Carson’s value theory precludes him from finding use in Mises and Rothbards calculation arguements. Carson accepts that prices form as a result of supply and demand — the haggling of the market. For him prices simply tend, in the long run, to equal whatever value is necessary to compensate the marginal worker for the subjective disutility of labor. Though I remain unconvinced that his LTV is a superior explanation of prices, I find that most caricatures of it represent misunderstandings of the position.
  • Published: December 11, 2008 3:58 PM

  • TokyoTom
  • Mike, try starting from basics. Say you have an unincorporated sole proprietor who is engaged in manufacturing and produces is a hazardous or toxic waste. If he disposes it in a way that causes injury to others, he is liable – up to all of his assets (and even further, though it may be a bankruptcy law cut off and it not be worth the injured person’s efforts). If he hires one or more employees, he is responsible for any injuries if he directs them to dump the hazardous waste, or if they cut corners as a result of his negligent oversight.If he incorporates, he will not be held responsible personally unless he committed the tort himself or directed it; his liability will be limited to the net assets of the firm. Clearly, the state grant of limited liaiblity lessens the ability of persons injured by his business activities to recover damages for their losses (they MIGHT be able to recover from the employee, but they will not have access to his personal assets). This creates a moral hazard on the part of the corporation owner to maximize private benefits from business activites while not having to worry about whether the full scope of losses may exceed the value of the gains. Courts recognize the injustice in this and sometimes “piece the corporate veil” to protect injured persons and even voluntary creditors.The state grant of limited liability has made it possible for founding shareholders to gather even more capital from persons who know that their downside risks are limited and wish to capture upside benefits. As these shareholders have limited liability, they also have limited interest in making sure that risks are managed well. The result has been a continuing erosion of shareholder rights, a whithering of control over managers, and the growth of ever larger corporations able to impose ever larger risks on society (the downside of which they can further limit by separately incorporating different business lines, especially the riskier ones).

    The focus on investors earning profits while bearing no personal responsibility for losses has given us a gradual shift in the nature of corporations (which now are given rights by the state to have unlimited lives and unlimited purposes, and are even recognized as “persons” for purposes of the Bill of Rights), a growth in corporate scale and risks posed to others (as shareholders, creditors and executives, managers and employees have increasingly less identifiable personal risk and more opportunity to look out for number one while ignoring risks), and a growth in citizens forming pressure groups to push for the regulation of firms and the risks they pose (mandating the posting of bonds for certain activites, mandating pollution clean up, etc.).

    All fed by the state grant of limited liablity – which could only exist on a libertarian basis (without veil piercing) if a substantial owner was covering the risks.

  • Published: December 12, 2008 3:42 AM

  • Stephan KinsellaAuthor Profile Page
  • TokyoTom:

    TT: My point is simply that there is no libertarian argument that the state OUGHT to step in and allow investors to unilaterally shift a portion of the risks of their business venture to others who might be damaged by the activities of the business. I’m glad that you agree, and am puzzled that you do not acknowledge that the state grant of limited liability to investors (and to transferees of such investors) in corporations constitutes an uncontracted-for shifting of risks to investors from victims of corporate torts.

    It’s not a shift if they don’t or shouldn’t have liability in the first place. for example, right now the state’s laws do not hold YOU accountable for, say, the actions of United Airlines. This is not a privilege granted to you or any shift in liability since you shouldn’t be liable for them anyway.

    TT: Stephan, again you refuse to actually advance a justification for the government grant of limited liability to shareholders (indeed, you concede that, there is no libertarian argument for such a state grant),

    Correct. I’m an anarchist.

    but simply argue for the status quo,

    Where?

    If there is no libertarian grounds for the use of government fiat to limit the liability that shareholders bear for the risks that the activities of the business might injure others, then surely the “presumption” you offer should be reversed, and you should advance a case that whether those who are injured by business enterprises should justly be forced to assume the risk that their ability to make claims against the assets of the business owners depends upon whether the business happens to be a sole proprietorship, a partnership or limited liability corporation.

    No: there is no libertarian grounds for the state to *impose* liability on shareholders for acts of employees.

    You state that “the question is, absent the state, should shareholders be vicariously liable for torts committed by employees, or not?”, presume that shareholders should have no liability as principals for acts of the corporation “because they did not commit the acts”, and then ask me to advance arguments that shareholders should be held responsible for the acts of corporations. I disagree, note that your formulations dodge a number of issues, and note further that you have completely ignored the arguments that I and others have advanced for unlimited shareholder liability (prominently, the two Yale LJ articles and the Vanderbilt L Rev article).

    I’ve given my reasons and sketched out my view of a theory of causation. I have little interest in reading the works of a bunch of mainstream unlibertarian utilitarian state apologist lawyer hacks.

  • Published: December 12, 2008 4:03 PM

  • P.M.Lawrence
  • Stephan Kinsella says of Mike’s “If A employs B for some non-aggressive act, but B then uses A’s resources to commit aggressive act, A, it would seem, is not culpable”, “You have just joined the pro-corporation side, since this view would totally eviscerate the notion of respondeat superior and vicarious liability that makes the company responsible for the torts of its employees committed while in the scope of performing their duties”.No, because he added that “while in the scope of performing their duties”. Mike’s description is more that of the “frolic”, for which the responsibility does not flow through.Fundamentalist says of TokyoTom’s “I don’t believe that there is any such libertarian justification for limited liability”, “The justification would be the issue of control. Common sense says that people who don’t control events aren’t responspible for the results.”

    Actually, it doesn’t say that, if you look wider than the instantaneous effect. Consider someone who lets go of a plate that breaks a fraction of a second later. Instantaneously, nobody was holding it, so it fell – but the letting go reasonably foreseeably although not absolutely certainly led to the smash (some falls don’t break things).

    So, common sense says that people who don’t control events because they let go are responsible for the results.

    JA asks of “The defining feature of a corporation is its legal independence from the people who create it. If a corporation fails, shareholders only stand to lose their investment, and employees will lose their jobs, but neither will be liable for debts that remain owing to the corporation’s creditors. This rule is called limited liability, and it is why the names of corporations in the UK end with “Ltd.” (or some variant like “Inc.” and “plc”).”, “Please explain how any of above is NOT libertarian?”

    Because there is no way you can ever achieve that in full without state aid. The most you can achieve by contract is to limit liability to contracting parties, and the most you can achieve de facto is to let sleeping or silent partners hide while active partners cannot.

    ‘What I find confusing is how this whole conversation started with a promise that “free markets would lead to a prevalence of organizational structures that mutualists like…co-ops, worker-owned firms, etc.”‘ – it didn’t, go and see. It started out with saying there would be smaller and simpler types of firm, of which those might be some. It never had a claim that those would be prevalent, outside the straw men that got thrown up.

    “Never mind all of the rest of us are talking about normal free market businesses…enterprises which trade on a voluntary basis for profit, violating the rights of none” – only, they aren’t like that, they are state aided and crowd out alternatives.

    “There is also suddenly a shift to the justification for partnerships and sole proprietorships. But this leaves out all the problems of partnerships — what if one partner dies, what if one partner wants to leave, what if all partners want to sell out, what if new investors want a fast exit strategy — the solution is to create a corporate structure and issue shares of the business. This has nothing to do with limited liability.”

    Absolutely correct, just as a solution to someone asking for his change on a purchase is to throw him out without giving him his change.

    “Such a structure can be created without State intervention” – wrong. Quite simply, the only possible free transactions always leave someone in a position of responsibility.

    “But the investor IS on the hook to the limit of their investment” – actually, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Corporation wasn’t quite right on this point, so I updated it. It usually works out that way, though.

    “You still need to answer WHY the investor is on the hook for more than than the value of their shares, given that some employees were the actual perpetrators (agents) of the violation of others’ rights” – see my reply to Fundamentalist.

    ‘when I read comments on the Carson blog to the effect that “left-libertarians believe corporations = companies, and left-libertarians are anti-corporation.”‘

    Go back and re-read them. It’s not a statement that corporations = companies, it’s a statement that companies are corporations (in non-US English, and also in Stephan Kinsella’s own statements); but that doesn’t rule out other corporations. And left-libertarians are not anti-corporation, just against the sort of state intervention that creates most of them. There are, however, a few that have an internal dynamic and don’t get created like that, e.g. the monastery St. Columba founded on Iona during the Dark Ages when there wasn’t any state there.

    Being a “Vulgar Libertarian” means being blinkered and recklessly, negligently or wilfully unaware of the selectiveness of facts and/or arguments being admitted. It’s not an aesthetic charge at all. And, of course, that selectiveness is just what Vulgar Libertarian is recommending.

    Mike follows up “In these cases, I’m not sure if it’s libertarian to go after the shareholders beyond their share ownership” with “I’m not either. In fact I’m starting to come around to the idea that it’s not. Still, someone has to have unlimited liability.”

    I believe firms could conveniently restructure from corporations to limited partnerships, with former shareholders becoming de facto limited liability through anonymity and management becoming active and accessible partners. So the pattern of liability arising from such a restructure seems to match what should already be in place.

    JA believes that ‘The employee can always quit. Hence, a request from an employer to an employee is not an “order.”‘

    Ah, but there is a concealed circularity in there, begging the question. Precisely because corporations have been given state aid, they have crowded out other options – so the only way an employee can quit is by going to another one just the same, unless he is lucky enough to find one of the rare alternatives.

    Stephan Kinsella asks “the question is, absent the state, should shareholders be vicariously liable for torts committed by employees, or not? The presumption is they should not, since they did not commit the acts–unless you can come up with a sound argument for why they should (and pointing to the way it’s been done before doesn’t cut it).” – see my reply to Fundamentalist.

    “You need to explain why shareholders should be liable. You keep calling them investors–shareholders are usually not investors.” While that remark encapsulates a precise distinction between owning and having made an increment to physical or other capital, saying it like that does not clarify matters but only serves to confuse them.

    Fundamentalist addresses TokyoTom: “I agree with you completely that the behavior of executives in a lot of corporations is disgusting. I just don’t agree that such behavior is caused by the corporate structure. Some of it is just the natural inclination of people to greed. But much of it is caused by the state’s control over the economy. If you get the state out of the economy, corp execs will have little reason to bribe them for special treatment. Anyway, your argument is based on the disgusting behavior of some execs and not necessarily on principle.”

    There is something with a bearing on this at http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Corporation#Corporations.27_criticism – “Legal Scholar and Professor of Law at the University of British Columbia Joel Bakan describes the modern corporate entity as ‘an institutional psychopath’ and a ‘psychopathic creature.’ In the documentary The Corporation, Bakan claims that corporations, when considered as natural living persons, exhibit the traits of antisocial personality disorder or psychopathy. Also in the film, Robert Monks, a former Republican Party candidate for Senate from Maine, says: “The corporation is an externalizing machine (moving its operating costs to external organizations and people), in the same way that a shark is a killing machine.””

    Yancey Ward misunderstands “One falling into this debate from the outside needs to understand something about mutualists like Carson- they don’t think you should own capital you are not working with yourself”.

    Actually, there is a range of views there. Kevin Carson takes the view that “property” that turns out not to be legitimate, i.e. true property, should go to people who are working with it directly, and that working directly with something that definitely isn’t owned sets up ownership (very Lockeian, that). But he doesn’t rule out legitimate property changing hands, say by gift, as far as I can see.

  • Published: December 12, 2008 11:12 PM

  • Yancey Ward
  • P.M. Lawrence,Nothing you wrote contradicts my “misunderstanding”.Carson, and the mutualists “like” him, don’t accept the profitting from accumulated capital unless that person is the one laboring with the capital. If you are not the one laboring with the capital, be it a bulldozer or a fertile field, then mutualists don’t recognize your ownership of this capital. If mutualists were more open about this, I wouldn’t give them such a hard time, but they always try to obscure this reality about their political philosophy as you did by not really explaining what is meant by “illigitimately owned”.
  • Published: December 13, 2008 2:50 PM

  • stephan Kinsella
  • P.M. Lawrence, couple questions.First, are you a (left) libertarian, or not a libertarian at all? I ask b/c of Kevin Carson’s saying I made an unwarranted assumption that you are in this post. Tell you what, I’ll assume you are, until you deny it.Second, with all your handwringing about corporations being “institutional psychopaths” blah blah blah, let’s envision a free market–or as your comrades like to say, “freed market”–in which some people decide to form a firm and organize it as a so-called “corporation”, which means that in dealings with people (customers, suppliers, etc.) all these people are on notice that any contractual claims they have are limited to the assets of “the corporation” and not the shareholders; and in a world in which libertarian principles of causation prevail and by and large shareholders are not held personally liable for the torts committed by employees of the companies they own shares in. Let’s also imagine that because the world is vastly wealthier, there are no taxes on companies and enterprise, that some of these corporations happen to be very large–as large as today’s MNEs or even larger.

    Now, in such a world, would you guys still be whining about corporations…? If so, your complaint has nothing to do with the state or state grants of incorporation. If not, then it seems you think merely having the state grant corporate status (even while taxing and regulating the corporation) makes the corporation an “institutional psychopath.”

    Interesting…. theory.

  • Published: December 13, 2008 7:02 PM

  • fundamentalist
  • PM: “So, common sense says that people who don’t control events because they let go are responsible for the results.”I responded to that above. You haven’t shown that stockholders ever had the responsibility in the first place.PM: “”Legal Scholar and Professor of Law at the University of British Columbia Joel Bakan describes the modern corporate entity as ‘an institutional psychopath’ and a ‘psychopathic creature.”

    Merely stating it doesn’t make it true. You would have to show that the majority of corporations act in that manner and you can’t. The truth is that very few corporations act that way. The vast majority are good citizens. You’re guilty of trying to make the exception the rule.

    I think there is something deeper going on with anti-corp types. Before I tell you what, let me make the following disclaimer: I’m not calling any of you socialists. Repeat, I’m not calling any of you socialists. So please don’t anyone post that I’m calling you names or calling you socialists because, to repeat: I am not calling anyone a socialist. If that is clear enough, then let me say that socialists believe that human beings are essentially pure in motives and they blame bad behavior on something outside of human nature. Anti-corp types seem to share that attitude with socialists, although to repeat: I am not calling anyone a socialist. As a result, anti-corp types have cause and effect backwards: organizational structure does not cause people to behave badly; bad people behave badly because it’s in their nature. They will behave badly in government, in corporations and in non-corporate structures.

    For example, all non-profit organizations are corporations. Why don’t they act as psychopathic creatures? They have exactly the same corporate structure, except that they don’t have any pesky stockholders to appease, which should make them more extreme psychopaths. You might respond that the profit motive makes for-profit corps act differently, to which I would respond then it’s not the structure but the motive that is the problem. If that’s true then why don’t you consider privately-owned businesses just as evil as corporations because they have a profit motive, too.

  • Published: December 14, 2008 8:59 AM

  • P.M.Lawrence
  • Yancey Ward writes ‘Nothing you wrote contradicts my “misunderstanding”‘ – I thought he wouldn’t get it.As for ‘Carson, and the mutualists “like” him, don’t accept the profitting from accumulated capital unless that person is the one laboring with the capital. If you are not the one laboring with the capital… then mutualists don’t recognize your ownership of this capital. If mutualists were more open about this, I wouldn’t give them such a hard time, but they always try to obscure this reality about their political philosophy as you did by not really explaining what is meant by “illigitimately owned”‘.Doesn’t that mean, if they don’t say what he thinks they mean after all, but something else, he is going to give them a hard time? He just wants them to match his straw man.

    Stephen Kinsella (as I shall deliberately misspell his name, as he did mine at the Rockwell blog) asks “First, are you a (left) libertarian, or not a libertarian at all?”

    I shall answer this in instalments as convenient, probably elsewhere. For now, I will point out that this has no bearing on the facts and arguments I present and would merely present a target for ad hominem attacks.

    “Tell you what, I’ll assume you are, until you deny it” is an announcement that straw man attacks will be made, probably ad hominem too.

    With his ‘with all your handwringing about corporations being “institutional psychopaths” blah blah blah’ he is utterly misrepresenting what I wrote: I drew people’s attention to other criticisms that are on the record, so they can think about those without being filtered out by any prejudice being thrown at me. It’s Joel Bakan‘s ‘an institutional psychopath’ and a ‘psychopathic creature’, not mine, and both he and I are being objective and detached, not “handwringing”.

    “Stephen” goes on to hypothesise ‘let’s envision a free market–or as your comrades like to say, “freed market”–in which some people decide to form a firm and organize it as a so-called “corporation”, which means that in dealings with people (customers, suppliers, etc.) all these people are on notice that any contractual claims they have are limited to the assets of “the corporation” and not the shareholders; and in a world in which libertarian principles of causation prevail and by and large shareholders are not held personally liable for the torts committed by employees of the companies they own shares in. Let’s also imagine that because the world is vastly wealthier, there are no taxes on companies and enterprise, that some of these corporations happen to be very large–as large as today’s MNEs or even larger.’

    First note that he is still building in his assumption that you could actually get that. I have pointed out that you can’t, not in full, because the buck always stops somewhere and any attempt to get rid of responsibility, whether it succeeds or fails, always leaves it somewhere. Of course you can get a long way de facto, by using anonymity to shelter behind, but sooner or later someone has to come out in the open even if not all the “someones” have to. He is also assuming that these organisations could get – and, more importantly, stay – large. As he remarks, “Interesting…. theory”.

    So I’ll help him. I’ll give him a real world example that comes close: Andy Carnegie and his steel business. From http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Corporation#Mercantilism we have “Many private firms in the 19th century avoided the corporate model… (Andrew Carnegie formed his steel operation as a limited partnership… )”.

    For his shareholders, Carnegie’s firm offered all those things. However, he himself (and some others) remained on the spot, and – in the end – he had to bow out, and sold up; a corporate structure was formed, under the legislative framework. The original structure couldn’t be kept going indefinitely without Carnegie and his colleagues. Yet they did not find it practical to set up the Kinsella-style non-state corporation to start with, despite its advantages to them as he describes those!

    Stephen Kinsella asks of his hypothetical, ‘Now, in such a world, would you guys still be whining about corporations…? If so, your complaint has nothing to do with the state or state grants of incorporation. If not, then it seems you think merely having the state grant corporate status (even while taxing and regulating the corporation) makes the corporation an “institutional psychopath.”‘

    Clearly, people then and now did and do complain – but about Andy Carnegie et al, not about the steel operation per se. So the answer is no, there would be no “whining about corporations”, unless and until there were any.

    Fundamentalist claims that I “haven’t shown that stockholders ever had the responsibility in the first place”.

    The point is that someone sets up the resources and physical power that allow a corporation to do things, and there is a chain connecting those original investors to current shareholders, at every step of which control was passed along with ownership. The shareholders didn’t have responsibility in the first place, they got it bundled up with the shares or by being people who set up the corporation.

    He then says of Joel Bakan’s description, “Merely stating it doesn’t make it true”. No, but it does give you food for thought and a reference to follow up if you want to find out if it is true. Which is why Fundamentalist’s “You would have to show that the majority of corporations act in that manner and you can’t” is a faulty test. I don’t have to show any damned thing, people can follow up Joel Bakan’s work if they want to see how he got there.

    Fundamentalist almost gets there with “As a result, anti-corp types have cause and effect backwards: organizational structure does not cause people to behave badly; bad people behave badly because it’s in their nature. They will behave badly in government, in corporations and in non-corporate structures”.

    But there is no inversion of cause and effect. It’s just that a corporation attracts and gives incentives to those types, then shelters them so that the corporation does those things as convenient. It’s like accusing someone who wants to drain a swamp because of malaria of not realising that malaria is actually caused by a microbe. When there is no corporation, you get isolated Carnegie behaviour (see above), which is self limiting because individuals come and go, and for which an actual person can be put on the spot and/or affected by his own real human qualities – which happened to Carnegie, later.

    Fundamentalist offers “For example, all non-profit organizations are corporations. Why don’t they act as psychopathic creatures? They have exactly the same corporate structure, except that they don’t have any pesky stockholders to appease, which should make them more extreme psychopaths. You might respond that the profit motive makes for-profit corps act differently, to which I would respond then it’s not the structure but the motive that is the problem.”

    That’s not a counter-example. They, too, misbehave in just that way. I and others have experienced this at their hands. No, I will not describe my own personal experience of this.

  • Published: December 14, 2008 7:15 PM

  • fundamentalist
  • PM: “The point is that someone sets up the resources and physical power that allow a corporation to do things, and there is a chain connecting those original investors to current shareholders, at every step of which control was passed along with ownership. The shareholders didn’t have responsibility in the first place, they got it bundled up with the shares or by being people who set up the corporation.”
    That doesn’t make any sense, but I’ll try to respond. I assume you’re trying to say that the original investors were not stockholders and therefore had control over the company. But if those investors become stockholders with limited control, they pass control of the company to the board of directors and management. I don’t know any other way to say it make it clear to you. That seems to be a very difficult concept for you to get your head around. Or are you trying to say that once you have control, and therefore responsibility, you can never under any circumstances relinquish it? And how in the heck does responsibility come “bundled” with the stock shares when the contract for ownership of the stock specifically states that the stock holder does not have control? You make less and less sense with each post.
    PM: “I don’t have to show any damned thing, people can follow up Joel Bakan’s work if they want to see how he got there.”
    You don’t have to be rational either, but it makes the discussion a lot more interesting. I don’t have to read Bakan’s work. He is merely a poor imitator of the thousands of Marxist economists who have written against the corporation for over a century. I doubt he has anything new to say. And the point stands: you cannot make every corporation guilty of the crimes of a few. It’s unjust and irrational.
    PM: “It’s just that a corporation attracts and gives incentives to those types, then shelters them so that the corporation does those things as convenient.”
    Tell that to the execs of corporations that have failed and no longer exist, some of the largest in history, or the execs that have gone to prison. You haven’t shown me anything about the corporation that is different from private business in attracting “those types” or that corporations shelter “those types” from punishment. In fact, most pyramid schemes are privately owned in order to avoid state inspection.
    PM: “That’s not a counter-example. They, too, misbehave in just that way.”Every single non-profit acts that way? Again, you want to punish the majority for the acts of a few. How just is that? Does no single privately-owned business ever commit a crime? Do you have any idea whether more corporations commit crimes than privately-owned businesses?You have no principle to stand on that would convict the corporation, so you insist on condemnation by anecdotal evidence, and there you want to punish the many for the actions of a few.
  • Published: December 14, 2008 9:07 PM

  • fundamentalist
  • PS, since you insist on abandoning principle and indicting all corporations for the actions of a few, you’ll need to have some statistics about what percentage of corporations out of all corporations commit crimes and what percentage of non-corporations commit crimes. I don’t have those statistics myself, but based on media reports, I suspect that less that one percent of all corporations are involved in criminal activity and about the same for private companies.
  • Published: December 14, 2008 9:11 PM

  • TokyoTom
  • Stephan, thanks for the further remarks.1. me: the state grant of limited liability to investors (and to transferees of such investors) in corporations constitutes an uncontracted-for shifting of risks to investors from victims of corporate torts.you: “It’s not a shift if they don’t or shouldn’t have liability in the first place”

    TT: Your conditional rejection obviously fails. Clearly state action is necessary to limit shareholders’ liability to the amunt of their investment, and a key aspect of the popularity of the limited liability corporate form over other forms is precisely that it limits the downside liability that shareholders would otherwise bear for the risks of damage that the activities of the company (via employees) pose to unconsenting others who are victims.

    As new limited liability forms have been created (LLC and LLPs), once tax authorities have confirmed pass-through tax treatment, their use has exploded, precisely to limit prior liability for torts (and to voluntary creditors). Large public firms separately all of the various hazardous ventures (that they own and control) precisely because they want to limit liaibility to third parties that they would otherwise be exposed to.

    2. Nice to see that you see no justification for the government grant of limited liability to shareholders in the first place, and that youy are not arguing for the status quo.

    3. you: “there is no libertarian grounds for the state to *impose* liability on shareholders for acts of employees.”

    I agree with your statement, but it dodges the real issues. The government acted in a unlibertarian fashion by establishing granting limited liability – previously, unlimited liability of investors for acts of a venture had been imposed not by the state, but by common understanding; as most ventures had no separate legal entity status, vicarious liability for torts was more narrowly applied, and wouldn’t always reach investors.

    But with the corporate form, the scale of risks imposed increased and the legal entity was imputed by courts to be the master to which corporate employees reported. But this new “master” was accountable to no one directly, with an ability to seek gains for the benefit of shareholders while creating risks for others, without any requirement to maintain assets to make others whole for the risks imposed: dividends could be paid to shareholders from profits, but when liabilities arose, the firm could simply be shut down.

    There are of course many firms where there are identifiable shareholders in charge, and who would have liability but for the corporate form.

    4. “I have little interest in reading the works of a bunch of mainstream unlibertarian utilitarian state apologist lawyer hacks.”

    Your call, but others may think that reading about the history of the rise of limited liaiblity corporations, some of the results (transfer of risks to parties who are injured without any ability to bargain ahead of time, and resulting pressures for the state to interfere FURTHER), consideratons of the equities and economic efficiency of the status quo, and suggestions for reform might be useful in understanding the full subject.

    5. you: “absent the state, should shareholders be vicariously liable for torts committed by employees, or not?” “I’ve given my reasons and sketched out my view of a theory of causation.”

    Sounds like I need to refer to the other thread, but certainly here you’ve done nothing of the kind here.

    But as for an argument that shareholders should be vicariously liable for torts committed by employees, I could advance the following:

    – there are many cases where a small group of shareholders clearly owns and controls a company, in which there is no basis to artificially limit vicarious liability to the company level. Such shareholders may be individuals that own a small firm or via and LBO own a very large firm that was once public, or may be corporations that own and control subsidiaries.

    – without limited liability, shareholders of large firms would have been much more interested in limiting the risks of losses and damages that exceed company assets, and would have made sure that they were in a position to manage downside risks directly (through management of executives, managers and employees) and indirectly via insurance (which insurers would also be incentiivized to manage and price risks).

    – Sure, there are many investors/shareholders of in “public” companies that have no ability to control corporate risks, but except for the state grant of limited liaiblity, there are no other such classes of shareholders.

    – The imposition of large-scale risk of injuries by limited liaibilities on involuntary victims is unjust and inefficient, shareholders (and executives) are better placed to bear the risks, shifting to pro rata unlimited liability by shareholders would not destroy markets (insurers could step in, for a price), and moving to such umlimited liability would greatly reduce the pressures on (and rationales used by) governments to force corporations to disclose more risks, maintain greater capital, bonds and insurance.

  • Published: December 15, 2008 6:21 AM

  • JA
  • “Ah, but there is a concealed circularity in there, begging the question. Precisely because corporations have been given state aid, they have crowded out other options”No, they haven’t. There are millions of self-employed people out there, event in our currently statist market. So this is a non sequitur on your part. Further, it says NOTHING about the voluntary nature of employment.
  • Published: December 15, 2008 9:40 AM

  • P.M.Lawrence
  • JA quoted me selectively, leaving out my “- so the only way an employee can quit is by going to another one just the same, unless he is lucky enough to find one of the rare alternatives”.That’s the problem with his “There are millions of self-employed people out there, event in our currently statist market” – those are few in proportion to the whole work force, and have taken up most of the opportunities like that. That’s how the crowding out works. It’s a fallacy of composition to think that because some people have managed it, it’s realistic for everybody.As for “Further, it says NOTHING about the voluntary nature of employment”, so? It takes a specialised definition to call it voluntary, when the opportunities for survival using private resources are also among those crowded out.

    I’ll address Fundamentalist later, when it’s more convenient.

  • Published: December 15, 2008 5:35 PM

  • TokyoTom
  • Fundamentalist, I note that I have responded to your further on Stephan’s newer thread.
  • Published: December 17, 2008 12:27 AM

  • JA
  • It’s a fallacy of composition to think that because some people have managed it, it’s realistic for everybody.It’s also a fallacy to assume that because some people are not something, it’s NOT based on choice and free will. Face it, you have NO proof of your “crowding thesis.”Working for corporations is popular. Self-employment is not. And it this mostly has to do with human nature.

    Most blue collar workers choose corporations because they are state-mooches, who want benefits of capitalism without taking the risks of capital.

    It takes a specialised definition to call it voluntary, when the opportunities for survival using private resources are also among those crowded out.

    No, it is YOU who is using a special definition for “voluntary.” I am using the common definition…free choice in relationships based on circumstances.

    I see the Anti-capitalist mentality (as defined by Mises) peeping out of your posts…”private resources” — which leaves out that nearly all the capital used for starting most businesses is between the ears of the founder (or in their hearts as willpower).

  • Published: December 17, 2008 8:11 AM

  • P.M.Lawrence
  • Fundamentalist says of my “The point is that someone sets up the resources and physical power that allow a corporation to do things, and there is a chain connecting those original investors to current shareholders, at every step of which control was passed along with ownership. The shareholders didn’t have responsibility in the first place, they got it bundled up with the shares or by being people who set up the corporation.”,”But if those investors become stockholders with limited control, they pass control of the company to the board of directors and management. I don’t know any other way to say it make it clear to you. That seems to be a very difficult concept for you to get your head around.”I fully understand that, and I also fully understand that it is not accurate, to the extent that they retain control over those – they can vote them out, and so on.

    “Or are you trying to say that once you have control, and therefore responsibility, you can never under any circumstances relinquish it?”

    No, I am saying that if you do relinquish control without due care and attention, then – just like walking away from a car leaving its hand brake off on a hill – responsibility stays with you. On the other hand, if you do take the right care in a handover, the person you hand over to gets the responsibility.

    ‘And how in the heck does responsibility come “bundled” with the stock shares when the contract for ownership of the stock specifically states that the stock holder does not have control? You make less and less sense with each post.’

    We’ve been over this before. I know the contract says that. So does the state. They lie. The state is improper here, and nobody can give what he does not have – the old Latin saw nemo dat quod non habet. Does the person selling the shares have any way of not passing on responsibility, other than keeping it? Two people cannot agree among themselves that responsibility should vanish; they do not have the moral authority to do so. But yes, they can put it in writing that that happens.

    “I don’t have to read Bakan’s work. He is merely a poor imitator of the thousands of Marxist economists who have written against the corporation for over a century. I doubt he has anything new to say.”

    As they say, you can lead a horticulture, but you can’t make her think. Also, “my mind is made up, do not confuse me with the facts”.

    “And the point stands: you cannot make every corporation guilty of the crimes of a few. It’s unjust and irrational.”

    But who is doing that? We’re just saying the corporation system hands out all sorts of privileges. Sometimes it enables crime, sometimes lesser harm, but always privilege as against natural persons.

    Of my “It’s just that a corporation attracts and gives incentives to those types, then shelters them so that the corporation does those things as convenient”, Fundamentalist says ‘Tell that to the execs of corporations that have failed and no longer exist, some of the largest in history, or the execs that have gone to prison. You haven’t shown me anything about the corporation that is different from private business in attracting “those types” or that corporations shelter “those types” from punishment. In fact, most pyramid schemes are privately owned in order to avoid state inspection.’

    Notice that when they fail, as when a Roman Emperor was overthrown, they get replaced by more of the same – the approach continues (what happened after Bernie Cornfeld?). Notice also that those who suffer in this way are those who go beyond the shelter they are given, not those who work the system.

    When I pointed out that his suggestion that non-profit corporations provided a counter-example was wrong, he misses the point with “Every single non-profit acts that way? Again, you want to punish the majority for the acts of a few. How just is that? Does no single privately-owned business ever commit a crime? Do you have any idea whether more corporations commit crimes than privately-owned businesses?”

    I doubt that they all do, all the time; only, they do when it is convenient – which it often is, because of the privileges. It’s also doing the same bait and switch between the privileged status and outright crime. It also has a red herring about private businesses; of course that also goes wrong some of the time – only, it doesn’t have the shelter of those privileges. The point is the privilege, not the bait and switch about crime. Which means…

    …”You have no principle to stand on that would convict the corporation, so you insist on condemnation by anecdotal evidence, and there you want to punish the many for the actions of a few… since you insist on abandoning principle and indicting all corporations for the actions of a few, you’ll need to have some statistics about what percentage of corporations out of all corporations commit crimes and what percentage of non-corporations commit crimes. I don’t have those statistics myself, but based on media reports, I suspect that less that one percent of all corporations are involved in criminal activity and about the same for private companies.” is entirely made up.

    JA also misses the point, with ‘It’s also a fallacy to assume that because some people are not something, it’s NOT based on choice and free will. Face it, you have NO proof of your “crowding thesis.”‘

    No? How about comparing historical patterns under different systems? Oh, wait – I already did that.

    “Working for corporations is popular. Self-employment is not. And it this mostly has to do with human nature… Most blue collar workers choose corporations because they are state-mooches, who want benefits of capitalism without taking the risks of capital.”

    Now who’s making assumptions? That simply isn’t true, whenever and wherever realistic alternatives were available. Stopping them being realistic, well, that’s the crowding out. I suppose you could add in the learned helplessness effect, so that most people who haven’t been in a free market come to think of the remaining options as the things to go for.

    Of my “It takes a specialised definition to call it voluntary, when the opportunities for survival using private resources are also among those crowded out”, JA comments…

    ‘No, it is YOU who is using a special definition for “voluntary.” I am using the common definition…free choice in relationships based on circumstances.’

    Ah. So, if I maroon him on a desert island or drop him out of a plane over the sea, my prior force in doing that doesn’t count towards what happens after that – he is free to look after himself while falling into the sea or looking for resources on the island.

    There’s more “sounds like” in his ‘I see the Anti-capitalist mentality (as defined by Mises) peeping out of your posts…”private resources” — which leaves out that nearly all the capital used for starting most businesses is between the ears of the founder (or in their hearts as willpower)’. It’s also unrealistic about the other stuff people need; ex nil nil fit, out of nothing nothing comes. Turn someone like that loose on a desert island and he would soon find he needed more. Or turn a peasant off his land with a lot of others and only the lucky few would find enough opportunities elsehere fast enough to save them; it has often happened before. What could Andy Carnegie have done, without a ship that could take him to a destination where he could flourish?

  • Published: December 19, 2008 8:43 PM

  • Garble
  • How does limited liability work in the real world?Your company goes bust (or just has a lot of debt). You sell the assets of the company to another Ltd entity (you can create or buy one for a couple of hundred bucks) with your wife (or any other individual you pay a few hundred bucks to) as director, thereby preserving the original name.You visit a liquidator and pay him ten grand to “verify” that the best way to dispose of the assets is by private sale, and then you have him sell the assets back to the original Ltd company for 1% of their value. Ta-da! Why would the liquidator care about the creditors? They aren’t paying him – you are!

    Go an look up any number of Ltd. liquidations online. They all mysteriously have enough to pay the liquidator, but nothing for the creditors. THe sale of assest often adds upt o the taxman’s and the liquidators bill. (You don’t mess with the taxman – he might actually bring the hammer down on you and your liquidator). The average creditor has to “pierce the veil” in court.

    There are all sorts of useful things you can do with limited liability, and in all my years as a credit controller, I’ve rarely seen it used to protect shareholders. Unless the shareholder also happens to be the director.

    It’s BS.

    Why should shareholders be liable for the risky actions of the company?

    An example. Let’s say a courier company tells its drivers to drive as fast as they can and run read lights etc. The shareholders benefit from this, as the compnay always sticks to its 60 minute delivery guarantee. One day a driver bowls over an old lady..
    Or the company pours toxic sludge into a lake rather than disposing of it safely, or whatever. If the shareholders benefit from the companies money making actions, they should also stand to be liable for its illegal actions.

    If I loan you $100 to deal drugs for me, and give me a 5% cut now and then, and then you get caught, do you think the law would see me as “not liable”?

  • Published: December 21, 2008 7:25 PM

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Dyslexic Vandarchists of the World–Untie! (LRC, 2008)

From LRC, Dec. 8, 2008:

Why “Dyslexia Untied?” – Dyslexia UntiedDyslexic Vandarchists of the World–Untie!

Laid-off workers occupy Chicago factory: Fired union thugs trespass on private property: time for the vandarchists to celebrate! After all, I’m sure they’re reaaal separated from their labor.

Re: Dyslexic Vandarchists of the World–Untie!

Leftlibertarian.org replies to my post (rather, the post of one “Stephen Kinsella”) here. Gotta love his rant about “the crimes of capitalism” and “workers heroically staging a work-in against the unfair policies of the American system of capitalism“–they are “merely trying to get their fair share.”

Meanwhile, elsewhere (2), the left-libertarians keep playing a type of bait and switch with their terminology. Someone cheers on the return of “militant” unions: when this is objected to, on the grounds that we libertarians oppose union violence, then they crawfish and dance around and say that if one reads thru 17 email chains he’ll see they didn’t mean “violent,” for heaven’s sake. When I object to accusations that companies “expropriate” the “value” of the “efforts” of “stakeholders”–they say by “expropriate” they don’t really mean “expropriate”; and by “stakeholder” they don’t mean what leftists usually mean by it; and by “bargaining power” they don’t mean what leftists usually mean by it.

If someone can give me a dictionary to translate it might be helpful.Here’s a summary of the discussion so far:

Long/Carson: “Corporations are imperfect, and thus proprietorships and cooperatives are what would emerge on the free market.”

Klein: “Proprietorships and cooperatives are also imperfect [various arguments and examples given], so they might not dominate on the free market.”

Long/Carson: “Yes, but corporations are imperfect!”

Update: The “Freedom Democrats” (allies of the left-libertarian?) falsely accuse me of advocating that these workers be shot. What a lie. I never even implied, this, nor do I believe it (my views on punishment and proportionality are spelled out here). They also accuse me of being a rightwing “paleo” libertarian, which is another bizarre charge (see, e.g., my views on gay marriage and affirmative action, not to mention IP, my shall we say modern views on religion, evolution, and the like, and so on.)

***

Update 2: Brad Spangler has a criticism of my post here. My reply follows:

Brad,

“Workers owed unpaid wages and benefits from Republic Windows and Doors have seized its physical plant as a forfeitable asset of the deadbeat company.”

I see no evidence that this is true. The headline says the workers are protesting layoffs. A layoff does not violate your rights.

The story says, “Robles, a husband and father of three children, says Republic’s abrupt closing means no more health insurance for his family. He and other members of the unionized, largely Hispanic workforce have been told that they should not expect any severance or vacation pay they say they’ve already earned.”

Well, you are not entitled to a job, nor to the health insurance benefits that are a perq of employment. The workers *say* they have “earned” severance and vacation pay–not “wages” as you state above. If they were being stiffed wages for hours worked, I’d agree they have a claim (but even here, that does not give them the right to act like a loan shark or mob and just seize the property; hell, even if they are owed money, it could be that secured creditors or lienholders have a prior claim to the property). But in most companies there is no contractual right to vacation pay or severance–that can be terminated at the discretion of the company.

The article also reports: “Employees say they got the news only four days ago. Illinois law requires a 75-day notification if a company the size of Republic intends to close its doors. ‘And what that does is, it allows workers to go into the collective bargaining agreement, to renegotiate terms of the contract to make sure they get everything that’s entitled to them,’ DePaul Univ. Labor Educator Cynthia Martinez.”

As for the 75 day period allegedly required by law–well, that’s not libertarian, is it. So giving 4 days termination notice instead of 75 is not a violation of libertarian rights (any more than the workers’ quitting with no notice is a violation of the employer’s rights–to prohibit or penalize this would be rightly criticized as a type of slavery–it’s no different the other way). As for their right to use pro-union laws to force a renegotiation of the terms of a contract, well, these laws are not libertarian either.

So I see nothing in the story to show that these people have any kind of legitimate contractual claim against the employer, or an ownership claim on its property. Do you know something I don’t?

11:00 am on December 9, 2008

The Best of Stephan Kinsella

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Mises blog:

The Over-reliance on State Classifications: “Employee” and “Shareholder”

11/20/2008

The state takes over and corrupts many institutions and aspects of life–roads, communications, law and justice, healthcare, money, defense, police, finance and banking, and education (see, e.g., Hoppe’s Banking, Nation States and International Politics: A Sociological Reconstruction of the Present Economic Order. In so doing they gradually infiltrate language and even our concepts with official state classifications.

Employee

An example of this is the idea of “employer” and “employee”. In a free-market economy people are market actors and interact with each other, in a division of labor. Firms arise, in part to overcome transaction costs, though there is an upper limit to their size (see Klein’s Economic Calculation and the Limits of Organization). But just as a firm may outsource some functions to other companies, it may purchase the services of individuals in a variety of arrangements. Some are called “employees” if they work repeatedly and extensively for the firm; though there can be part-time employees, and full-time employees who moonlight. Others are called contractors or consultants, even if they have only the employer as their client.

In a free market the labels employed would be relatively unimportant. In fact these are really just examples of a contractual relationship where the firm has agreed to pay a fee to the employee or contractor in exchange for performing specified services. There is no sharp distinction between them. But as the phenomenon of “employment” has become prevalent, it presented itself as a juicy target for state regulation, e.g. minimum wage, fair labor standards (overtime pay, maximum hour, etc.) legislation and the like. What this means is that if a firm has an “employee” as defined by the state, then certain legal rules apply to the “employer.” Naturally a firm might want to just re-classify its “employees” as “independent contractors,” but the state will not permit this, since it defines reality.

Not only that, but the state defines the employee’s actual position and job title, in determining whether the worker is “exempt” or not from certain FLSA requirements. Companies might try to give a mid-level employee a “manager” title to classify him as “exempt” and evade overtime requirements, for example, but the Department of Labor won’t permit this–it defines reality.

Besides being an unfortunately effective tool that the state uses to control market actors, another problem with this state of affairs is that the’s state’s own (artificial, arbitrary, decreed) classifications become accepted unquestioningly and used in normative and even economic reasoning. For example, libertarians tend to take for granted the idea that “employers” are “responsible for” the torts of their “employees”–the doctrine of “respondeat superior.” They take for granted the legitimacy of the doctrine of respondeat superior in part because it has become ingrained in our legal system (which the state has monopolized), but note that in any event, this doctrine requires one to be able to objectively identify that someone “is” or “is not” an “employee” or “employer.” If the state does not decree what this means, then the question would arise, should a company be responsible for the torts of other individuals it profitably interacts with? What about torts committed by its contractors and consultants? What about torts committed by the employees of a company it uses for outsourcing? Why does it make sense that I would be personally liable if my “employee” harms someone while delivering a package for me, but not if a FedEx truck driver does it when delivering my package? And so on.

(I discuss some of the problems with respondeat superior and shareholder liability for the torts committed by employees of companies they own shares in, in my comment to Long on the CorporationIn Defense of the CorporationSean Gabb’s Thoughts on Limited Liability; and Legitimizing the Corporation.)

Similarly, some libertarians rely on the classification “employee” when discussing issues like conspiracy or joint liability for a crime (see my Causation and Aggression for elaboration). According to some, if A “merely incites” B to perform a crime, A is not liable; but if A is B’s “employer,” this changes matters. And so on. In other words, the libertarian determination of A’s responsibiltiy turns on the state‘s own arbitrary, non-objective classification–a classification which is selected solely for purposes of allowing the state to control market actors for labor regulation purposes, etc.–that is, a classification that is not significant, rational, or objective for purposes of normative reasoning.

(We might add here a similar observation: some would argue that if a woman merely persuades her lover to murder her husband, she is not responsible; but if she “agrees to pay” him money, she is–note that the latter case rests on the state’s own definition of “contract”, and is unscientific because while the state might only define contracts for money or monetarilly valuable objects or services as “counting” for this purpose, the Austrian knows that value is subjective and motivates all actions–the lover who kills his girlfriend’s husband to obtain her love or sexual favors is engaging in human action just as a hired hitman is; just because the law focuses on monetary transactions (mostly so that it can tax them) is really irrelevant to the proper classifications and distinctions that the ethicist should employ and draw.)

Shareholder

Another category–related to respondeat superior and “corporations” (see links above)–is shareholder. Even though “corporations” could exist on the free market with no state privilege or backing, the state has monopolized this too, and sharply defines who a “shareholder” is. Libertarians, who of course believe in private property and ownership, and know how to buy shares on the free market, accept this category as some holy writ. They do this implicitly when they oppose the idea of corporate limited liability–whereby owners of shares in a corporation are not personally liable for contractual debts of the corporation, nor for damages caused tortiously by the corporation’s employees. Now the contractual debt part is easy to dispose with; Hessen has done so. What about torts committed by the corporation’s employees, that damage third parties? Why shouldn’t the corporation be liable? Why should’t its shareholders be liable?

In criticizing this form of limited liability, critics make several ungrounded assumptions: (1) the validity of respondeat superior (so that the corporation is responsible for the employee’s actions in the first place); (2) the objectivity and relevance of the “employee” classification; and (3) that shareholders are causally and legally responsible for damage the company is (indirectly) liable for (which itself requires an assumption that the classification “shareholder” is objective and relevant).

I’ve already pointed out some flaws with (1) and (2), but what about (3)? Austro-libertarians realize that ownership is simply the legal right to control. Shareholders have a legal right to receive a pro-rata share of assets upon winding up; and the right to elect directors, who appoint officers, who hire managers, who direct employees, who carry out daily tasks. They don’t have the right to, say, enter the headquarters and use a conference room. Their rights are distributed, conditional, and limited. They basically have some rights to receive money, and some tenuous rights of influence over the company. But there are any number of market actors who have such influence, or even more–employees, vendors, customers, lenders, and so on. (And don’t even get me started on the artificial concept “stakeholder” also pushed by the state.)

The point is: why is the shareholder just assumed to be “the” “owner” of the company, for purposes of responsibility for actions caused by its “employees”? Because the state classifies it this way? A sound theory of libertarian causation and responsibility would look at the underlying reality, not the state’s labels and arbitrary classifications.

Corporation

This one, too, is abused–mainly today by “vandarchists“–see my links above.

More needs to be done on all this–we libertarians have to be wary of the state’s takeover of our conceptual way of understanding the world.

Update:

Of course, many other examples can be found: “education” (the state doesn’t count practical things like working on a farm); “citizen”; “adult” (18 years old, or maybe 21, so sayeth the state); “marriage” (the whole gay marriage debate would be moot if the state didn’t define marriage and classify people as “married” or not..

Archived comments:

Comments (7)

  • iceberg
  • Great post. I have to say that sometimes Austrians or Post-Austrians try too hard to be hip with the leftist crowd, to the extent that because they wish to denounce the statist corporate form, they prove too much in the process, more than is justified by the facts– or counterfactuals.

    For example I have to be convinced whether the state’s roads are an example of a transportation subsidy that props up the megacorp form over smaller, and more numerous geographically-distributed manufactories. Because of the limits of our historical knowledge, a thymological approach seems to be quite difficult.

    In order for Carson or Long to make such a claim, they will have to show that the state intervention of providing transportation subsidies (in the form of road, railroad, airports, etc) exceeded whatever private actors would have assembled in the counterfactual example.

    But can they do this?

    I don’t know how. In Thomas DiLorenzo’s “How Capitalism Saved America”, if I remember correctly, he wrote about how there was over 200 companies located in some New England state alone that were engaged in the private road (turnpike) business at the turn of the last century. Who is to say that a continental-wide series of interconnected private turnpikes would have proved impossible if the state didn’t intervene? Maybe we can’t imagine it today because of current housing densities (also created by the state nationalizing 1/3 of the country’s landmass), but who is to say that it would have been impossible?

    I don’t know too much about the NYC subway system, but what I do know is that it was constructed by private companies. It might be fruitful to learn whether this was done with state intervention to force homeowners to allow the subway’s underground easements. If someone could point me to such a resource, it would be highly appreciated.

  • Published: November 20, 2008 1:30 PM

  • Ken Zahringer
  • Excellent post, Stephen. This is a critically important principle that applies across the board – for instance, the whole concept of “foreign trade” is absurd in the absence of the State. You are right. There is much to be done in this area. Thanks for a great contribution.
  • Published: November 20, 2008 2:08 PM

  • Ken Zahringer
  • Some details on what I meant about foreign trade:

    Here’s my line of intuition/insight: I’m a piano technician, full-time for the last 15 years or so, part-time now that I’m back in school. When I buy parts, tools, etc. I sometimes use a supply house in Chicago, sometimes one in Clawson, MI, and sometimes one in Vancouver. Each has their own niche, each has some products the others don’t. My purchases from the first two are “domestic trade” and from the third, “foreign trade”. Yet from my point of view, it’s all trade. I’m just buying stuff I need from a supplier that has it to sell. Why should these transactions be treated differently?

    The answer, obviously, is the existence of the State. As Hoppe (one of my intellectual idols) pointed out, the State claims a territorial monopoly on taxation, and must enforce this claim as a matter of survival. Thus the State must define internal and external transactions for tax purposes, and then encourage internal and discourage external transactions. Even in a regime of more or less free trade between the US and Canada, there are still administrative requirements that increase transaction costs for foreign vs domestic trade. Likewise, the central bank must also claim and enforce a territorial monopoly on money as a precondition for conducting monetary policy and controlling the banking industry. Thus we have a distinction between transactions that can be completed with one government’s fiat currency vs transactions that require exchanges of different fiat currencies. None of this would apply without nation-states and their currency and trade interventions.

    Here’s the practical result: When I order from Chicago or Michigan, I make my order, pay with my credit or check card, and get my stuff usually in 3 days. When I order from Vancouver, the supplier has to fill out customs paperwork, pay a small duty that he includes in his prices, and it ends up taking 7-10 days to get my stuff. Distance only accounts for part of this. In addition, he prefers that I pay by check because this incurs less cost for him in converting $US to $CD. So he ends up waiting another week after I get my shipment, with invoice, before he gets paid. This happens only because of the existence of the State.

    The economics profession accepts the existence of these monopolies pretty much unquestioningly. We talk about national income accounting. The US isn’t a firm or a household. In fact, there are a myriad of firms and households in the US, and each one has its own priorities and set of accounts. The only reason anyone thinks about national income accounting is because we are all bound up in the same political and monetary monopoly. Balance of payments is also an issue. But would it be a valid concept at all if there weren’t a central bank with a central repository of foreign assets (even including a little gold) to gain or lose because of current account imbalances? And would we care about an imbalance if it didn’t mean “foreigners” (political them vs political us) were gaining “our” assets? Add to this, of course, the fact that we wouldn’t even be in our current economic situation without the assistance of our central bank and its monetary monopoly.

    A more complete and, I hope, more coherent essay is in the works.

  • Published: November 20, 2008 7:25 PM

  • happylee
  • Even though “corporations” could exist on the free market with no state privilege or backing, the state has monopolized this too, and sharply defines who a “shareholder” is.

    Au contraire, mon frere, a corporation is, by definition, a creature of the state.

    Perhaps you mean to say that free men can freely set up business ventures in any manner that suits their needs; and that ventures with capital lenders being treated as capital equity partners sans liability is possible. A “corporation,” however, with its pernicious concept of diffused decision making via (sacre bleu!) the ballot box, of centralized grants of immunity and separation of capital and control, could not arise in a free market.

    But why? It’s because, I think, that when a corporation arises under current law it becomes an individual. In Rothbardia commercial cooperation, especially the present exchange of future goods via contract, would not depend on or require the birth of something independent from the contracting individuals. Nor would the “laws” of liability. And if there’s no reason for something to be created, it will not be. The entire history of corporations is merchants begging the state for something. In Rothbardia the individual begs no one for anything, least of all from a wanna-be king.

    There is, I think, no large-scale, complex and capital intensive commercial venture that would in any way require “incorporation” to achieve all that “corporations” purport to achieve, even in our current system, let alone in Rothbardia.

  • Published: November 20, 2008 7:58 PM

  • JA
  • Why does “incorporation = large-scale”? Small enterprises from hot dog carts to your local handyman are incorporated. Why? Taxation, primarily.

    Second, is it the word “corporation” that trips up these left-libertarians? I remember a whole chapter in Rotherbard’s Man, Economy and State on joint-stock companies. Somehow this chapter isn’t cited in Carson’s manifesto, for example.

  • Published: November 21, 2008 8:41 AM

  • Mike
  • Iceberg:

    In order for Carson or Long to make such a claim, they will have to show that the state intervention of providing transportation subsidies (in the form of road, railroad, airports, etc) exceeded whatever private actors would have assembled in the counterfactual example.

    I don’t think Carson and Long necessarily claim that a private road system would never have developed to the extent that public roads did. Rather, their point is that with a private road system businesses that rely on high-volume long distance transportation would have to internalize these costs. It is not the extensiveness of public roads but the fact their costs are socialized that amounts to a subsidy for the most frequent users.

  • Published: November 22, 2008 11:36 AM

  • Chronos
  • Considering that road wear follows a fourth power law with respect to weight, the vast majority of road wear is caused by the trucking industry. Almost every federal highway dollar is a direct subsidy of the trucking industry over rail and other shipping industries; the fact that individuals happen to use the same roads for their cars has such a small impact on the system as to be irrelevant.

    What does “fourth power” mean? Well, a single axle on a car has, say, 1,500 lbs / 680 kg of weight on it. A semi truck, OTOH, has 10,000 lbs / 4500 kg of weight per axle. The semi:car axle weight ratio is thus in the neighborhood of 6.67. 6.67 to the fourth power is 1,980. So a single semi axle does as much damage to the road as 1,980 car axles. A semi truck has four mass-bearing axles, whereas a passenger car has only two, so that’s 3,960 cars to equal the damage done by one truck.

    The end result is that the trucking industry would fall apart overnight if they were forced to pay for the highway repair costs that they’ve successfully externalized via lobbying.

  • Published: November 25, 2008 3:21 PM

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Beltway Libertarians and the Bottom Billion

Someone just reminded me of some interesting remarks by one roving “libertarian” and former VP-Junketeering: Check out this line by the said VPJ:

The%20Bottom%20Billion.jpgThis review by Niall Ferguson (combined with my knowledge of other work by Collier that I’ve read) spurred me to order Paul Collier’s new book, The Bottom Billion: Why the Poorest Countries Are Failing and What Can Be Done About It. The proposal for ten-year military occupations and administration sounds remarkably unappealing and even foolish, but Collier is a very smart fellow and I’m looking forward to his insights into the sources of dysfunctionality in poor nations.

Note the curious use of “but.” Those warmongers and nation-builders are problematic, sure–but they sure have some good insights! There’s no limit to what you can learn if you stick to “inside the beltway.”

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From the Mises Blog (archived version):

Is Macy’s Part of the State? A Critique of Left Deviationists

OCTOBER 9, 2008 by

in ur macys.jpgI recently criticized the “vandarchists” who claim that breaking Macy’s windows (as some of the “anarchist” RNC protestors did) is not necessarily a crime. Why? Because Macy’s is not the legitimate owner of the property nominally in its name. Now why is this? Here the reasons become murky. (The vandarchists include a large number of self-admitted “anti-market,” unlibertarian anarchists, and apparently even some of the allegedly pro-market anarchists.)

This view seems to be based on the idea that our society is so riddled with statist intervention that certain businesses cannot be considered “private”. Wal-Mart is sometimes able to get a choice plot of land due to a local government using its power of eminent domain, some say. And many companies “benefit” from the tax-subsidized road network, and thus tend to use more distant suppliers than they would in a free market (so argue the “localist” zealots; for a good critique of localism, see Bob Murphy’s The Worst Economics Article Ever?).

Another argument is that companies benefit from “limited liability” privileges doled out by the state by allowing firms to “incorporate.” There long been opposition, among some libertarians, to the corporate form of business organization itself. As I’ve noted elsewhere, libertarian criticism of incorporation is flawed–based on confusion about the nature of contracts, liability, and causation, and often based on ignorance of what the current law under criticism actually is (why people who do not even understand what limited liability really means under current law feel compelled to vociferously weigh in on it is a mystery).

Calculation and Anti-Market Attacks on Business

[Update: See also “Appendix: Corporate America being “part of the state” and the calculation problem” to Corporate Personhood, Limited Liability, and Double Taxation]

There are of course many problems with these scattershot, misguided, and non-rigorous swipes at modern business and free enterprise. For one, the attacks sometimes focus on “corporations,” but not all businesses are organized as corporations. Yet they are attacked as well. For another, the attacks are usually aimed at larger “corporations,” even though smaller firms would seem to benefit from and be entangled in the state’s regulatory web as much, or to a significant degree. A consistent attack would have to attack not only big corporations, but all types of firms, of all sizes–from the mom and pop sole proprietorship, to partnerships, to behemoth corporations and multinational enterprises.

And not only would these companies have to be merely criticized. More than that, they would have to be considered to be parts of the state. After all, this is what is implied by saying it’s not a crime to break Macy’s windows: that it’s not a private owner, that it, like the state, is a criminal possessor of property owned by others (why the brick-throwing unemployed vandals are the owners is a mystery). These “criminal” corporations, who are intertwined with the state, are thus nothing but parts of the state.

This is what motivated my comments to this thread. A few of the relevant excerpts:

Mises had it right when he said that you could tell if a country is basically capitalist (in the good sense) or not: whether it had a functioning stock market. We do, and I am quite sure Mises would never agree with such a ridiculous claim that there is “no distinction” between the state and the Fortune 500 companies. Of course they are essentially private. The market is hampered, but it is not the state. If it were the state, it could not produce as much as it does (see Mises’s socialist calculation argument).

Moreover, in my view, if Macy’s and Wal-Mart are “fair game,” that means they are basically part of the state. Which means that the Fortune 500 is nothing but a department of the state. Now, this either means Mises’s views on the socialist calculation problem are wrong, or the globally dominant productivity of American industry-despite, not because of, the shackles of the state-is merely a myth. Which is it?

Sure, I’d be open to coherent, sane, calm, non-biased, even-handed “evidence” that Macy’s is basically criminal-coupled with a coherent and libertarian-compatible theory of criminality (such as Walter Block’s sketch). I would think that if an enterprise is basically tax-subsidized-a net tax-eater instead of a tax-payer, that is a good sign it’s just parasitical, if not criminal. But again: if you assume that Macy’s and companies “like them” or worse, or the Fortune 500, are all next tax-eaters, that implies something is wrong with the Misesian calculation argument, because if they are all tax-eaters, where is the wealth coming from?

In other words, if the anti-market types are right, then, contra Mises, we don’t have a free market at all, but just one giant corporatist state–what some call state capitalism or monopoly capitalism. But if we have a huge state, and if Mises’s calculation argument is right, then calculation ought to be virtually impossible or severely hampered–certainly it would not permit the obviously stupendous amounts of productivity that the American private sector still produces. One would have to maintain that America’s $14 trillion GDP is nothing but a myth, a shell game. That our prosperity is fake; a sham.

Now Kevin Carson responded to my calculation point as follows:

“Your [Roderick Long’s] observation about government insulating corporations from the competitive ill effects of diseconomies of scale suggests the answer to Stephan Kinsella’s earlier question-i.e., how large corporations are able to function, if they are de facto branches of the state, without being crippled by calculational chaos.

“The answer, of source, is that being “crippled” is relative. The old economy of the USSR was able to function, in the sense that it created use-value. State industry manufactured refrigerators, tractors, etc., and people bought them (or at least a considerable portion of them) because they were, after all, better than nothing. They cooled food, or hauled farm machinery, after a fashion. The problem is that nobody knew if they were the best possible use of the inputs that were consumed creating them, or even if they were a net loss of value compared to the resources used up to make them.”

Carson misses the point. The Soviet Union did not have total socialism, but it had a high enough degree so that its economy was severely crippled. It was able to function in part because “it existed in a world containing many relatively capitalist markets, such as that in the United States. Thus, the socialist planners were able to parasitically copy the prices of the West as a crude guideline for pricing and allocating their own capital resources” (from my appendix “Economic Calculation Under Socialism“, to the 1997 forerunner to my 2005 book International Investment, Political Risk, and Dispute Resolution; citing Mises’s Human Action, pp. 702-03; Rothbard, The End of Socialism and the Calculation Debate Revisited).

Now it is true that every firm (whether large or small, whether orgnaized as a “corporation” or not) faces its own calculation problems. Peter Klein explains in his Economic Calculation and the Limits of Organization that the very reason firms exist is to overcome certain costs, such as transaction costs, and for other advantages. However, as firms grow, the calculation problem becomes worse. Thus firms will exist, at some size; but face more severe transaction costs as they become larger (other costs loom larger as well as a firm grows). As Klein notes, “Rothbard has shown how the need for monetary calculation in terms of actual prices not only explains the failures of central planning under socialism, but places an upper bound on firm size.”

Of course, states themselves are subject to severe calculation problems, in part because of their size and the degree of unitary control over capital; and this “upper limit” is in a sense why total socialism is indeed “impossible”. But if the entire American corporate structure is really part of the state, then it would be crippled by the calculation problem. And unlike the Soviet Union, it would have no more-free external capitalist market prices to borrow from. It should be doing even worse than the Soviet Union did. Instead of the reliable, safe, comfortable and beautiful luxury cars produced by private enterprise in the West, we ought to be driving around rickety Trabants.

Private Ownership of Property

The point to all this is to show how ridiculous it is to maintain that Western enterprise is part of the state. Mises was right that we have an essentially capitalist market economy–albeit an increasingly hampered one. Capitalism’s productivity is hampered and under increasing jeopardy due to state intervention; but the productivity that we have and continue to have is real and exists despite state intervention. The idea that Wal-Mart is productive or prosperous only because it sometimes “benefits” from eminent domain, or because its transportation costs are subsidized is ridiculous. (Everyone’s transportation costs are subsidized; are we “beneficiaries” of this “free” gift? Or is it not a gift, but an overall cost? Can vandarchists smash the windowz of anyone who’s ever driven on public roads?) Even companies like Microsoft or Apple whose business models are heavily intertwined with the illegitimate state construct of intellectual property are boons to mankind (see, e.g., Tom DiLorenzo’s The Gates-Rockefeller Myth and Anti-trust, Anti-truth).

But if private enterprises–this includes both small and large companies, whether organized as “corporations” or not; that is, “firms”–is actually productive, and not part of the state–why are they not legitimate owners of property? To be sure, big business is not without sin–beside, perhaps, from a small number of libertarians, no companies or individuals in America are. But to maintain that property used and nominally owned by a particular person or firm is really “unowned” or “up for grabs” if the putative owner has ever used or endorsed any state program would be to eradicate the institution of private property itself: almost the entire country would have to be viewed as unowned, up for grabs–subject to vandalism. We anarcho-libertarians have a hard enough time fighting off the mainstream misconception that we oppose order and are bomb-throwing nihilists.

We must maintain the distinction between the state and its victims, even if the democratic state does everything it can to erode this distinction. An argument can be made that, besides the nominal state agencies and state employees, other companies are so in bed with the state and play such a reporting role (or vice-versa) that they are illegitimate and at least partially complicit with the state–bounty hunters, private prisons, military contractors, BlackWater, and so on. But Wal-Mart, Macy’s, and even Microsoft, for heaven’s sake? These are productive companies who are harmed by the state, not benefitted by it (yes, yes, they also support the state and many of its unjust policies, as do most American individuals, who are also on net harmed by the state).

The Vulgar Anti-Market “Anarchists”

Some of the left anarchists and mutualists have made some valid points about so-called “vulgar” libertarians–those who praise modern big business and turn a blind eye to its use of the state to loot taxpayers and suppress competition. But this is not news to Rothbardian libertarians. We have long known this. As Rothbard wrote in Confessions of a Right-Wing Liberal,

in the remarkable phrase of Ayn Rand, Big Business is “America’s most persecuted minority.” Persecuted minority, indeed! Sure, there were thrusts against Big Business in the old McCormick Chicago Tribune and in the writings of Albert Jay Nock; but it took the Williams-Kolko analysis to portray the true anatomy and physiology of the American scene.

As Kolko pointed out, all the various measures of federal regulation and welfare statism that left and right alike have always believed to be mass movements against Big Business are not only now backed to the hilt by Big Business, but were originated by it for the very purpose of shifting from a free market to a cartelized economy that would benefit it. Imperialistic foreign policy and the permanent garrison state originated in the Big Business drive for foreign investments and for war contracts at home.

[Update: But see Robert L. Bradley, Jr. and Roger S. Donway, “Reconsidering Gabriel Kolko: A Half-Century Perspective,” The Independent Review (Spring 2013). According to Sheldon Richman (private correspondence, Dec. 15, 2025: “I’ll give him [Donway] and Rob Bradley credit for showing that Kolko’s scholarship was flawed.”]

And even Rand criticized the tendency of business to seek government protection from competition; run to the government to protect it from competition (see also Grinder and Hagel, “Toward a Theory of State Capitalism: Ultimate Decision-Making and Class Structure, from the very first issue of the Journal of Libertarian Studies in 1977.)

Yes, we must condemn the pro-state lobbying, support, and views rampant among our fellow men. But the anti-vulgarians, in their bizarre fetish for localism and disdain for enterprise and capitalist acts among consenting adults, take it too far. This is self-evident when you see them defending hooligans vandalizing the property of a department store like Macy’s. Macy’s, and Wal-Mart, and even Microsoft, are not Lockheed or the Army. As a friend wrote me,

It’s a bizarre version of libertarianism that doesn’t allow you to recognize all the good that Wal-Mart and Microsoft have done without at that moment criticizing them for the ways that they benefit from the government. … As far as I can tell, most of the debate on this is about the culture of libertarian discourse and its emphasis. But so what if the Mises Institute has posted articles praising Wal-Mart’s mission to provide cheap goods? Is it really misguided if they don’t include the left-libertarian subtitle or asterisk?

In the comments to this thread, Roderick Long asked me, “what are your criteria for determining how much state involvement a private business has to have before it becomes an extension of the state and so not a legitimate proprietor? And is it an absolute cut-off or a matter of degree? I’ll close here with my reply (edited a bit; see also Kinsella on Left-Wing Idiocy, by one “Cork”):

Roderick: I have not had occasion to figure this out. I do not see the need. The need would arise if we had some kind of post-revolutionary war crimes tribunal, I suppose, but I don’t know of much done in this regard other than Block’s Toward a Libertarian Theory of Guilt and Punishment for the Crime of Statism. But I really think if we ever achieved any kind of victory we’d be looking for conciliation, compromise, negotiation, and a peaceful way forward (for most people, anyway). I believe some of the “agorist”; or more naive-utopian minded might think we need to decide this now, but I don’t. The only way we will ever progress is if more people become more aware of the virtues of libertarianism–peace, prosperity, cooperation, civilization, and the libertarian private property ethic that underpins it. “Countereconomics” by disaffected losers who resent the universe won’t do it, in my humble opinion.

I think it’s sufficient to establish that there is a state, and that it is distinct from society. I know that you believe it is. If you combine this basic insight with the basic libertarian precepts–cooperation, conflict-free interaction, private property rights–then in my opinion you arrive at the view that not only is the libertarian rule of first-user=first-owner right and applicable to some “ideal” state of affairs–but it applies to any real-world messy-life situation too. Only in a world where everyone is equally culpable and evil, where no state is identifiable, where there is an eternal, chaotic, “anarchic” war of man against man, of all against all, would the rule not apply (for who could apply it?). In our world, any rule that castigates basically all of society for being enmeshed in the web of the state is self-defeating, futile, wrong, victim-blaming, and really, to be honest, nihilistic and evil.

For some reason these disaffected “anti-corporate” types, who appear to largely be stuck in dismoded Marxian economics and social analysis, have no comprehension of the way real enterprise works. It’s as if a bunch of Che-teeshirt wearing grad students whose Republican daddies paid for their scholarships to Princeton and never worked a day in their lives were railing against “Wal-Mart.” They have some inexplicable, useless, and self-destructive (in the Darwinian sense; would that we had not short-circuited Darwinism with our modern capitalist largesse) animus against commerce and market life. Hey, to each his own–but it’s not libertarian (I contend), and it certainly doesn’t justify breaking the windows of merchants. They may feel “alienated” (though how pampered grad students and trust-fund babies can be alienated from labor you don’t actually perform with your own hands is a mystery), but to assume, Marx-like, that this is a natural condition of actors on the market is antiquated, to say the least.

So I would of course as a libertarian favor a rule whereby non-state actors having some color of title to property have a presumptive right to use it as owners until someone else can establish a better claim thereto. Pocahontas’s great-great-…-grandniece can establish a better claim to the property than you? Fine. Hand it over to her. Such cases would be rare; and covered by title insurance. In the meantime: the world is for the living. Rand was not wrong about everything.

We as libertarians must–we must–support productive achievement, commerce, the market, freedom, free enterprise, the division of labor, economies of scale, individualism, and, above all, as Nozick said, capitalist acts between consenting adults–which these ignorant savages rail against.

Enough. Yes, we can appreciate the caution against vulgar libertarianism. But it is too much. Give me “vulgar” libertarianism any day over the rock-throwing–and condoning–non-libertarian misfits.

 

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The Prophetic Dr. Hoppe on the Rise of the Phoenix

Update: I noted previously (Update: The Prophetic Dr. Hoppe on the Rise of the Phoenix; below) Professor Hoppe’s prediction years ago of the inexorable move to a single, worldwide fiat currency. It’s coming. As reported here, “The dollar dropped after China’s central bank reiterated a call for a worldwide currency.”

See also Hoppe’s fascinating discussion of money starting about 1:05:17 of Lecture 3 of his riveting 10-part Economy, Society, and History lectures delivered in 2004, where he talks about the tendency on a free market of multiple “monies” to converge to one–by the nature of money, it’s more valuable the more widespread it is, etc. Hoppe notes that there is a similar tendency now, with fiat currencies, only this time, it’s bad, not good. He points out that the world had alreayd achieved free market unified money (gold); this was destroyed with the outgrowth of dozens of country-based paper monies, leading to a world in a state of quasi-barter; and now when the major currencies like the dollar, yen, euro, talk about monetary unification, they are moving back towards what we already had with gold, except without the relatively fixed supply and other salutary aspects of a commodity-based money.

[Cross-posted at Mises Blog]

Original Mises post; archived comments below:

The Prophetic Dr. Hoppe on the Rise of the Phoenix

Oct. 7, 2008

In Hans-Hermann Hoppe’s important article Banking, Nation States and International Politics: A Sociological Reconstruction of the Present Economic Order (Vol. 4 Num. 1) (published in 1990 in the Review of Austrian Economics; reprinted as Chapter 3 in his EEPP)), he notes one possible end-result of the state monopolization of money and credit. He notes the then-imminent rise of the ECU/Euro, and then predicts what might happen next: the combination of the three dominant currencies (at the time, the US dollar, the Japanese yen, and the Euro) into a new one-world paper currency (which might be called the “Phoenix,” say) run by a US-dominated World Central Bank. (We might add in now the Chinese Yuan, too.) With all the talk of the need for “coordination” among central banks to deal with the current crisis, and the anti-capitalist regulations that are sure to come, maybe the Phoenix is about to rise.

An extended quote from Hoppe’s paper is below.

With the European calculational chaos solved, then [by the creation of the ECU/Euro], and in particular with the European hard currency countries neutralized and weakened within a cartel that by its very nature favors more against less inflationary countries so as to protect and prolong U.S. hegemony over Europe, little indeed would remain to be done. With essentially only three central banks and currencies and U.S. dominance over Europe and Japan, the most likely candidates to be chosen as a U.S-dominated World Central Bank are the IMF [International Monetary Fund] or the BIS [Bank for International Settlement]; and under its aegis then, initially defined as a basket of the dollar, the ECU, and the yen, the “phoenix” (or whatever else its name may be) will rise as a one-world paper currency–unless, that is, public opinion as the only constraint on government growth undergoes a substantial change and the public begins to understand the lesson explained in this book: that economic rationality as well as justice and morality demand a worldwide gold standard and free, 100-percent reserve banking as well as free markets worldwide; and that world government, a world central bank and a world paper currency–contrary to the deceptive impression of representing universal values–actually means the universalization and intensification of exploitation, counterfeiting-fraud and economic destruction.

Archived comments:

Comments (18)

  • eric lansing
  • the thing is, 6 billion people cannot be forced by, say a hundred thousand people, to accept a piece of paper as means of payment.”What will replace the US dollar? It can only be gold…”http://www.thelongwaveanalyst.ca/pdf/V5_1.pdf
  • Published: October 7, 2008 12:17 PM

  • Nick
  • Quote:”…unless, that is, public opinion as the only constraint on government growth undergoes a substantial change and the public begins to understand the lesson explained in this book: that economic rationality as well as justice and morality demand a worldwide gold standard and free, 100-percent reserve banking as well as free markets worldwide; and that world government, a world central bank and a world paper currency–contrary to the deceptive impression of representing universal values–actually means the universalization and intensification of exploitation, counterfeiting-fraud and economic destruction.”ROFL…ROFLMAO…OMG I’m crying…

    Yeah, people are suddenly going to wake up and say – Hey, what’s that slapping my ass?

    LOL – If that’s what we have to rely on then I better stop paying my bills and use that money to buy guns, ammo, food, and smokes to use for currency.

  • Published: October 7, 2008 12:21 PM

  • P.O’B.
  • How many of you guys are concerned about this “emergency summit” Bush has called for? You don’t actually think anything like above could come out of this, do you?
  • Published: October 7, 2008 11:22 PM

  • Anonymous
  • Hey!? What’s that slapping my ass??
  • Published: October 8, 2008 10:01 AM

  • Bruce Koerber
  • Today the secretive agreements among the central banks that serve as the basis of world monetary hegemony came to the surface (for air!). Two things are apparent: 1). The unConstitutional coup is fearful of drowning in its own cesspool, 2). The U.S. dominated world bank already exists and is the monster behind all the wars designed to weaken any and all rival monetary systems.After sucking in some air (the propaganda that a coordinated system of central banks is good for the world) the beast went back under the water of secrecy. Oh how sweet the vulnerablitity of the mammal in need of air, with all of its sucking and unweaned offspring!The next time it surfaces the waves of the cries for liberty will gag the oxygen deprived behemoth. As its members flail (We know who one of the members of the unConstitutional coup is – Paulson) the wave of liberty becomes as one and casts the scum of the earth (the ego-driven interventionists) on the shore to rot while the ocean current regain their equilibrium.
  • Published: October 8, 2008 7:06 PM

  • Richard Romaine
  • What, practically, can we do to undercut the beast that will destroy our savings and enslave us to nonsensical policies? Buy gold? Live in mud huts? Grow our own vegetables? What can we do on a practical daily basis to avoid our hard-earned time and “money” being sucked up by the inadequate policies of our time.
  • Published: October 10, 2008 2:06 AM

  • M.A. Hargett
  • I’m afraid I am seconding Richard Romaine’s question. For those of us who are Johnnie-Come-Latelies and have had no ability or time to prepare, what is the answer?
  • Published: October 10, 2008 11:55 AM

  • MG Kouba
  • In responce to Misters Romaine and Hargett:Dr. Edwin Vieira of Harvard University has suggested that all it will take is one state out of the entire union to make sound money an option.I am petitioning my state legislature and putting the word out there that it is perfectly legal for Missouri, my home state, to take steps that would prevent the widespread devestation that will happen someday (sooner, more likely than later) from being quite as severe for us.

    As a citizen, I feel that it the best I can do for my state, and ultimately my country.

  • Published: October 10, 2008 12:10 PM

  • TC Bell
  • Kouba,Please do not think that any meaningful change is going to come through electoral politics; no matter how “local” it is.
  • Published: October 10, 2008 12:20 PM

  • ugh
  • This’ll be great! The evangelicals will be surprised to see that their own man (bush) is responsible for the one-world currency and the ensuing mark of the beast. (how else to impose currency controls on everyone?) Wasn’t it reported that Pope John Paul II feared he was the anti-christ?Excuse me, What?This isn’t prison planet.com?

    Oh, Sorry.

    Well, at least we’ll be able to stop worrying about the Amero.

    Ugh

  • Published: October 10, 2008 2:19 PM

  • MG Kouba
  • Personally, I think consumers will be too suspicious of a new hard currency, unless the government approves it. If the state makes it legal to pay taxes in the new currency, I think it’ll have a fighting chance. If not, it’ll be much harder for a new currency to become useful in daily transactions.
  • Published: October 10, 2008 4:42 PM

  • JB
  • anyone ever read “The Reconstruction Acts 1868” from Civil War era? You may ask what does this have to do with anything today..well this is what stripped our “union” of any states rights…the states have about as much independence to choose this or that as a 10 year old child. we’re done for…JB
  • Published: October 10, 2008 9:36 PM

  • Erik
  • Re: M.A. Hargett.What can you do to prepare? Go to SurvivalBlog.com This is “the” place to go and is the most popular site on the web for preparing. Buy the “Rawles Gets You Ready” preparedness course here… http://www.readyfortheworst.comFor the first time in nearly a year, it will be offered at 1/3rd off, starting on Monday. The course is centered around the concept of stocking up for a family, by making well-planned trips to a “Big Box” store.
  • Published: October 11, 2008 2:03 PM

  • Marco Costa
  • ‘In an essay posted on the People’s Bank of China’s website, Zhou Xiaochuan, the central bank’s governor, said the goal would be to create a reserve currency “that is disconnected from individual nations and is able to remain stable in the long run, thus removing the inherent deficiencies caused by using credit-based national currencies”.’Gah! And how are they supposed to make us use them? International legal tender laws?I feel sick. :-0
  • Published: March 24, 2009 2:01 AM

  • EotS
  • I second (or third, or whatever) the point that if we’re counting on a mass-scale awakening by the public, we’re in for deep, deep trouble.As the State fails, they’ll look to the State for solutions – right up until they’re loading people onto trains. Or perhaps not even then…
  • Published: March 24, 2009 7:40 AM

  • Dan
  • igolder.com
    e-gold.com
    libertyreserve.comGoogle DGC…
  • Published: March 24, 2009 9:25 AM

  • Goldie Locks
  • As long as their is food on the table and a roof over their heads, the world will tolerate inflationary theft and corruption. When the system fails to deliver the basic goods, no amount of paper money will make people comply with the wishes of their overlords.Of course, this is why governments need standing armies–to ensure their survival when policies fail. But if there were a true systemic failure to provide the necessities of life, no amount of bullets will make people comply with the wishes of their overlords.Globalization gives great power to the politico-financial cartel. It also creates the potential for global financial and industrial collapse. Just like interconnected electric grids in North America allowed continental blackouts, world-wide financial interconnections allow for world-wide catastrophe. Interconnections do not lead to stability; rather, they lead to a giant domino effect.

    Globalization is not being created out of a natural need. It is being artificially imposed in desperation to keep a ponzi scheme going. Pyramid schemes need to bring in ever increasing numbers of victims to prop up the scam. The scheme is going global because it is rapidly consuming every last available mark.

    The aftermath of ponzi schemes are ruined lives and financial failure. Generally this occurs in the context of a greater society that victims can integrate themselves back into and get a new start. But if the whole world is absorbed into a pyramid scheme, who will save us when it goes bust? And how much longer can it go on if we are literally recruiting every last person to be victimized?

    What is going to happen?

  • Published: March 24, 2009 12:10 PM

  • EotS
  • Goldie Locks,I agree with most of what you said, with exception to this statement:”Interconnections do not lead to stability; rather, they lead to a giant domino effect.”

    As a general statement, the more interconnected systems are, the more stable they are. Nature itself is highly interconnected, and if you want to look at a man-made version, look at the Internet.

    Government doesn’t “interconnect” things, it conquers them. It imposes its rule on a greater and greater scale until it destroys everything in its domain.

  • Published: March 24, 2009 8:21 PM

Update post; archived comments below:

Update: The Prophetic Dr. Hoppe on the Rise of the Phoenix

Re The Prophetic Dr. Hoppe on the Rise of the Phoenix: today’s Drudge Report reports: BEIJING TO PITCH NEW GLOBAL CURRENCY; DUMP DOLLAR.

3/23/09

Archived comments:

Comments (11)

  • Keith
  • EWWW!!

    The Chinese want to replace the dollar reserve system with something possibly worse. Something they credit to Keynes.

    What is the matter with these people? Keynes got us into this in the first place! Of course since the fellow who suggested it is part of a central bank there is no real surprise there….but still.

  • Published: March 23, 2009 10:39 PM

  • anon
  • If this were to occur… what would it mean for the demonetization of gold, and the existing manipulation of gold markets?
  • Published: March 23, 2009 10:52 PM

  • Mike
  • The second paragraph of this report is completely contradicted by the third, and rest of the article. It makes you wonder, if everything after the second paragraph were simply made up by FT partisans of IMF.

    Furthermore, the assertion that China has no other choice than to keep its reserves in US dollars, being entirely preposterous, does indicate the FT shilling for the one world order maniacs.

    The second paragraph is clearly describing a commodity money such as gold and silver coin.

    Moving $2 T to the gold market supply of 4 billion oz. would add at most $500 to the price; but most importantly pave the way for clear sailing ahead.

    Perhaps there is something to what he says about it taking courage (to imagine the effects of this on the many trillions of dollars now flying around).

    Take this, for sending a carrier destroyer after a fishing boat.

  • Published: March 23, 2009 11:55 PM

  • Geoffrey S.
  • I’m sure the Fed wouldn’t object to buying those reserves if China doesn’t want them. They already purchased $300 billion of U.S. debt recently.
  • Published: March 24, 2009 2:18 AM

  • Kalim Kassam
  • Looks like the Russians are on board as well: http://www.themoscowtimes.com/article/600/42/375364.htm
  • Published: March 24, 2009 3:17 AM

  • jeffrey
  • I’ve always looked at a single world fiat currency as the worst of all worlds, but now I’m not so sure. How could it really be enforced? Maybe it would make more room for alternative market-based currencies than the present system. And it is hard to argue that it would be more inflationary than the dollar at this point. The worst possible system is the one we have right now.
  • Published: March 24, 2009 7:44 AM

  • Bruce Koerber
  • Apolitical Political Commentary!
    Tuesday, March 24, 2009

    Is China A Lapdog? Please Don’t Lose Face!

    How do you say in Chinese “Like a good socialist I cannot let the market decide the medium of exchange?”

    One way is to praise Keynes!

    Another way is to surrender monetary control to the International Monetary Fund!

    The Chinese leaders are acting just like the ego-driven interventionists everywhere else. They are proposing destruction of the economic future instead of facing the necessarily painful corrections now. China should just ‘bite the bullet’ and take its losses that are the result its ill-advised buying of the debt of the unConstitutional coup in the United States.

    China is afraid of ‘losing face’ but it should allow the unConstitutional coup to ‘lose face!’

    Otherwise China will ‘lose face’ to an even greater extent by being seen as the little puppydog being lead on a leash by the greatest economic terrorists the world has ever seen.

  • Published: March 24, 2009 8:52 AM

  • J Cortez
  • These idiots can do whatever they want. They can create any fiat currency that appeals to them, but it doesn’t matter. It might take years, but in the end, they will fail. History has shown this to be true.
  • Published: March 24, 2009 9:42 AM

  • Geoffrey S.
  • I believe it was Murray Rothbard in MES who said that if a one world fiat currency failed we would be in a much worse position than national fiat currencies failing. This is because of the money regression theorem and the fact that a new medium of exchange would have to emerge from barter. If a national currency fails you can just peg to another national fiat currency.
  • Published: March 24, 2009 2:13 PM

  • Mike
  • We know it will fail, and the sooner the better. The terms of barter are not dispensed with just because a money is introduced and adopted; they are extended and refined.

    In the wings, ready and able, are the electronic gold and silver vault instantaneous payment mechanisms which are very efficient at rapid and secure settlement of transactions of any amount, down to the tiniest fractional weight.

    These systems are already working successfully, especially in on line and ATM transactions. Equal or greater success should attend the expansion into daily purchase and sale transactions, — and wages, if permitted by legal tender.

    If this be regression, let’s make the most of it.

  • Published: March 24, 2009 5:02 PM

  • George
  • Moving $2 T to the gold market supply of 4 billion oz. would add at most $500 to the price

    The largest pile of gold on the planet is held by the US (around 8000 tons or 256 million oz) and is only worth around 260 billion at current prices.

    A $500 jump (50% increase) wouldn’t help in finding someone with a pile 8 times larger — let alone someone who would sell it to you for a pile of US bonds.

  • Published: March 24, 2009 10:10 PM

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Ayn Rand Institute on The Bailout and The Great Depression

From Mises blog 2008; archived comments below.

Mises Wire Stephan Kinsella

The Ayn Rand Institute’s op-ed, The Real Lesson of the Great Depression, opines that “The Great Depression does have something to teach us about the current crisis.” According to ARI, there were various causes of the Great Depression:

“Most people believe the Great Depression was caused by an ‘excessively’ free market–and they regard the massive expansion of government intervention under FDR as its cure. But as many economists have demonstrated, it was government intervention that caused and exacerbated the Depression–from the massive tariffs of Smoot-Hawley to a series of disastrous interest rate hikes by the Federal Reserve to antibusiness measures such as the National Recovery Act.”

ARI properly calls for abolition of the Fed and advocates the gold standard. The implication that the Fed should not have raised interest ratest is troubling, however, since it implies that interest rates should have been pushed lower by the fed, i.e. the money supply inflated; that failure to inflate was a cause of the Great Depression. But was it? Not according to Rothbard. See Mateusz Machaj, Friedman for Government Intervention: The Case of the Great Depression.

(For more, see ARC’s Response to the Financial Crisis; see also these comments (12) on another thread, regarding Objectivists Richard Salsman’s and Yaron Brook’s denigration of the idea of a 100% reserve gold standard [and pro fractional reserve banking views].)

Update: I’ve modified this post in response to criticism; readers can click the links and judge for themselves.

***

Archived comments:

Comments (49)

  • Nick Molling
  • An article that virtually quotes Rothbard 90% of the time and conceeds only minor concessions to the Chicago School should not be used to fan the flames of petty ideological bigotry. Don’t quote me, but I think I’ve even heard Joe Salerno admit to some negative effect of aforementioned rate hikes in his defense of Rothbard’s explanation of the Depression,The Ron Paul Revolution, which has smashed orthodoxy and intolerance among freedom lovers, has a large umbrella. Seek common ground, not civil war.
  • Published: September 30, 2008 4:53 PM

  • Stephen Austra-Beck
  • Here, here to Nick Molling’s comment! Intriguing observations, Mr. Kinsella. Thank you also for the footnotes.
  • Published: September 30, 2008 5:02 PM

  • Krazy Kaju
  • Well, first, monetarism is much more popular than Austrian economics, so it comes to me as no surprise that they espouse the monetarist point of view.Secondly, the rate hikes did help create the depression. It’s obvious that higher interest rates meant less loans being given, which meant a fall in investment.Of course, the free market response would be a free market hard currency. When the threat of contraction looms, as it did in the 30s, the “price of money” would be higher, and we’d see more businesses mining gold, silver, copper, or whatever else would be used as money.

    So, in a sense, their statement can be justified, although at the same time they failed to point out that the late 20s bubble was created by the Fed in the first place due to easy credit policies so…

  • Published: September 30, 2008 5:04 PM

  • Jeffrey TuckerAuthor Profile Page
  • That’s a pretty hard line Stephan! I too wish that people would better understand MNR’s point that the Fed attempted to expand liquidity but failed, but I’m not sure that we can expect that to be universal knowledge just yet.
  • Published: September 30, 2008 5:16 PM

  • John Delano
  •  Nick Molling –An article that virtually quotes Rothbard 90% of the time and conceeds only minor concessions to the Chicago School should not be used to fan the flames of petty ideological bigotry. Don’t quote me, but I think I’ve even heard Joe Salerno admit to some negative effect of aforementioned rate hikes in his defense of Rothbard’s explanation of the Depression,”Sorry for quoting you, but sure, some capital goods industries will be affected negatively by the rising interest rates, but falling prices are good for the overall economy. Malinvestment can be reallocated to more profitable uses.

    Jeffrey, you don’t want to deprive Stephan of an attack on the Randians, do you?

  • Published: September 30, 2008 5:44 PM

  • Richard
  • I think the argument was made by Mark Skousen in “Vienna & Chicago” that the Austrians were right in explaining the causes of the Great Depression but that the monetarist were correct in accusing the Fed of exacerbating the crash by decreasing the money supply more than was necessary.
  • Published: September 30, 2008 5:52 PM

  • U
  • GO Liberty Dollar!Let the credit market dry up!
  • Published: September 30, 2008 5:56 PM

  • mikey
  • “I think the argument was made by Mark Skousen in “Vienna & Chicago” that the Austrians were right in explaining the causes of the Great Depression but that the monetarist were correct in accusing the Fed of exacerbating the crash by decreasing the money supply more than was necessary. “Richard, Rothbard explains how the Fed tried extremely hard to reflate but were not successful.
    I think Skousen goes far too easy on the Chicago school in this book.U- it is ironic that the federal government is trying to reward career counterfeiters and thieves with hundreds of billions of dollars while the one individual who tried to introduce circulating silver coinage is now facing serious criminal charges.
  • Published: September 30, 2008 6:41 PM

  • David Veksler
  • “There is overwhelming evidence that our current crisis is the result primarily of government intervention in the economy, from the Fed’s inflationary policy of keeping interest rates artificially low to the creation and regulatory coddling of Freddie Mac and Fannie Mae”Here, Yaron Brook is clearly advocating the Austrian Business Cycle Theory.See? I can quote of out context too!
  • Published: September 30, 2008 7:07 PM

  • Lubos
  • I do not think that the passage “…to a series of disastrous interest rate hikes by the Federal Reserve..” really means that Fed should had put more money into the economy. Couldn’t that mean that Fed let those interest rates rise higher that it would had been without Fed regulations? The author of the article maybe thinks that natural interest rates would had been lower than they were in those times. But it does not imply that he wants Fed to pump money into the economy.
  • Published: September 30, 2008 7:41 PM

  • N. Joseph PottsAuthor Profile Page
  • The idea that manipulating (some) interest rates is the same as manipulating the direction and rate of monetary expansion (or contraction) is worth debunking, at least for the more-sophisticated listener.
    It buttresses the assertion that not only SHOULD the Fed not manipulate the money supply (nor should anyone else, on the strength of armed force), the Fed ultimately CANNOT manipulate the money supply. It not only doesn’t and cannot know how much (more or less) money there should be at any given time, it actually lacks the MEANS to make it so with any kind of precision (of timing or amount, or even DIRECTION).
    If it DID have such means, it could rapidly correct policies that seemed in hindsight to be mistakes. Obviously (history of the Depression), it does not, or the Fed’s reflationary efforts would have worked, and the Depression snuffed out early.
  • Published: September 30, 2008 8:48 PM

  • J Head
  • I do not personally know anyone associated with the Ayn Rand Institute, but I do not believe they officially endorse any particular schools of economics beyond simply endorsing capitalism and non-governmental intervention into the economy. They focus on general principles of human interaction based upon Rand’s ethics. I have seen some debates over fractional-reserve banking in some circles sympathetic to ARI, but certainly not in favor of the Federal Reserve or fiat money. The arguments that I’ve seen in favor of fractional reserve banking in so-called “Randian” circles usually go:”In a free banking system, a bank should be allowed to engage in fractional reserve banking AS LONG as the depositors acknowledge and agree to the risk involved. If a bank becomes insolvent from such fractional reserve banking, it will go out of business. The market will take care of it.”That seems reasonable to me.
  • Published: September 30, 2008 11:57 PM

  • David Veksler
  • The title of this post implies that Objectivists support the Fed, or some of its recent activities and that they advocate particular Fed policies. It also implies that Yaron Brook believes that the Fed’s failure to inflate caused the Great Depression.I don’t know what beliefs Dr Brook has regarding the *immediate* cause of the Great Depression, but he is clear on the long term-cause of the problems then and now: the existence of a central bank itself. He’s never advocated that the Fed raise or lower rates – just that it should cease to exist. I don’t know *any* ARI-affiliated Objectivists who support the existence of a central bank.The larger context being ignored is that the Objectivist movement has always learned towards Austrian economics, and that no one in it advocates central banking. Ayn Rand and Mises wrote enthusiastically about each other’s writing, and Ayn Rand always recommended Mises’ works to aspiring economists.
  • Published: September 30, 2008 11:58 PM

  • William H. Stoddard
  • Oh, come now. Interest rates ought to be determined by agreement between willing lenders and willing borrowers in an unrestricted market. If the interest rates are instead set by a regulatory agency or a government-created monopoly, they’re almost certainly going to be wrong. There’s no a priori reason to suppose that they’ll always be wrong by being too low, or to say that excessively low rates are bad but excessively high rates are good. So it’s perfectly reasonable and consistent with radical free-market capitalism to complain that the Fed has set the rates too high.Moreover, if rates have previously been artificially low, creating a bubble, and are suddenly made artificially high, bursting that bubble, the burst may be faster than the market would impose, and thus suboptimal; it may hamper the market’s recovery.I know that historically we’ve more often had to worry about excessively low rates, and they do lead to booms, inflation, and bubbles, but I don’t think that someone’s saying rates were excessively high amounts to abandoning support for the free market.
  • Published: October 1, 2008 12:36 AM

  • Ryan Bilkie
  • This article is so stupid that it doesn’t even accomplish its deceptive goal: convincing uneducated people that the ARI is full of statists. Everyone who’s ever read a word of Ayn Rand’s (or Yaron Brook’s) knows that she didn’t believe in ANY government regulation. She’s made it very clear that government intervention can only cause economic dislocations, regardless of the particular form they take. Yaron Brook is talking about a few particular forms–just because he said that interest-rate hikes were responsible for the depression doesn’t mean that he thinks artificial money is the solution! He never said that! In fact, if you go on their web site, the ARI is screaming, “decontrol!” and has been since its conception. They clearly want a complete and total separation of government and economics, and they’ve never departed from that view. Why such dishonesty?
  • Published: October 1, 2008 1:57 AM

  • Ben O’Neill
  • I clicked on the link for this article with great surprise, given that I have never heard ARI or any Objectivist intellectual voice support for a Government controlled Reserve Bank or the expansion of fiat currency (I have heard them support a 100% gold currency many times). The tiny sliver of support for the Chicago school position in the ARI quote hardly supports the alarmist title of the article. Mr Kinsella would do well to find better grounds for his apparently visceral hatred of the Objectivist movement.
  • Published: October 1, 2008 4:09 AM

  • Dinesh Pillay
  • Wow! Talk about taking things out of context. Did you think a minute before childishly rejoicing your new (& unfounded) attack on ARI?
  • Published: October 1, 2008 4:52 AM

  • Michael Smith
  • It’s very disappointing to see such a cheap attempt to smear Objectivism at this web site. Objectivism certainly does not advocate the existence of a fiat money supply or a government-run central bank — as you must surely know. Why, then, do you wish to suggest otherwise?If you disagree with an actual Objectivist idea, fine, but attack that idea, not some hopelessly lame straw man that doesn’t withstand 30 seconds of scrutiny.Do you not understand the enormous value of the moral justification for capitalism that Rand derived? Yes, as Rand herself specifically stated, Mises and other Austrians have done a magnificent job identifying the government’s role in creating the so-called “business cycle” and in proving time and again that government intervention is behind virtually every significant economic problem. But people will cling to all sorts of impractical notions — such as statism — if they believe them to be moral imperatives. Objectivism is the first, and only, philosophy to set forth the moral case for capitalism — and we will never win wide-spread acceptance of laissez faire capitalism as long as people regard its animating motivation — the pursuit of one’s own self-interest by means of one’s own honest effort — as evil.

    At a minimum, you should retract the blatantly dishonest title of this article — it is a stain on this website’s credibility.

  • Published: October 1, 2008 7:33 AM

  • jon
  • of course the latecomers here are all overlooking the evidence of mutually inconsistent theories despite the alleged association with objectivism in favor of attacking the blog post, its author, whatever else is handy, now that word has gotten around someone’s gone and pointed out a flaw in the One True Libertarian Way.ah yes, ARI is full of statists… wait. is it, ryan? tell us more.ah yes, “out of context!” surely something someone said somewhere else is consistent — and totally irrelevant — and we can just read that instead.

    ah yes, “attack the idea!” not objectivism itself (please, it’s fragile).

    except, hang on just a minute. i don’t see a single point made about objectivism anywhere in this post, i see it associated with… where it came from.

    the ARI is publishing material with decidedly little problematic theory in it, the author refers to it as the “randians,” and… this is somehow dishonest. oh, well, is the ARI “randian,” or not? i mean i confess i don’t know a thing about it.

    didn’t you say you were objectivists? i guess i don’t know anything about that, either.

  • Published: October 1, 2008 8:20 AM

  • Alvaro
  • Three words from a wise man:Big Tent Liberalism 
  • Published: October 1, 2008 8:36 AM

  • Book ’em Danno
  • Rand, however great her novels are and defense of capitalism is, had obvious bias that lended itself to statism. See this quote from her:”Whatever rights the Palestinians may have had — I don’t know the history of the Middle East well enough to know what started the trouble — they have lost all rights to anything: not only to land, but to human intercourse. If they lost land, and in response resorted to terrorism — to the slaughter of innocent citizens — they deserve whatever any commandos anywhere can do to them, and I hope the commandos succeed.”She attaches the qualifier “innocent’ to the citizens of Israel, but only states “Palestinians” matter of factly. Rand even admits that she does not know the history nor does it seem to matter to her. So how can she assume that Israelis are innocent?
  • Published: October 1, 2008 9:10 AM

  • Michael McDaniel
  • Objectionism, like any “ism”” is susceptible to perception based opinion.Keep in mind: As long as we look to the government for solutions there will always be problems.http://yubanet.com/regional/Michael-McDaniel.php
  • Published: October 1, 2008 10:44 AM

  • Michael Smith
  • “Book ’em Danno”:Even if the Palestinian claims are true — namely, the claim that the Zionists “stole their land” when Israel was created and chased them out of the country — that does not give the descendants of those original Palestinians the right to initiate the use of deadly force against the Israelis current living in Israel.So how on earth does this indicate any sort of bias toward statism?
  • Published: October 1, 2008 11:04 AM

  • Book ’em Danno
  • Michael Smith,True, Rand’s descendants can’t expect to get restitution from Stalin’s posterity for all the hell he caused her and her family. However,Rand lumps all Palestinians and makes them all guilty of terrorism. Whereas she treats “citizens” with the qualifier “innocent”. (Are not some Palestinians citizens of Israel?) Couldn’t she at least differentiate between good and bad Palestinians and afford them the same respect she gave to Israelis?

    Her use of “citizen” also implies her support of the state also (but not necessarily statism, granted).

    How can anyone before action “have lost rights to anything”? If the roles were reversed would Rand still stick by her statement? Could she have said that the ghetto Polish-Jews have lost all rights to anything and the Nazi commandos should kill them all because the ghetto Polish-Jews resort to terrorism?

    Historical context does matter.

  • Published: October 1, 2008 11:54 AM

  • Larry Sechrest
  • I have responded in great detail to one Randian—Richard Salsman—-who discusses the Great Depression, and who rejects and condemns the Austrian Theory of Business Cycles. Here’s one tidbit from Salsman: stocks CANNOT be overpriced.
    Anyone who wants a copy of my article (from the Journal of Ayn Rand Studies) please email me at [email protected].
  • Published: October 1, 2008 12:10 PM

  • Vincent Cook
  • Blaming the Fed for having finally halted its own credit expansion is troubling, notwithstanding ARI’s otherwise commendable support for the gold standard and for abolishing the Fed. It is perfectly reasonable for Stephan to point this out.Accusing him of “deception” or “petty ideological bigotry” or “smearing Objectivism” and twisting the clear meaning of Dr. Brook’s erroneous statement is simply absurd. At this particular moment in history, it is especially important to articulate a correct understanding of business cycles–and that’s all that Stephan was doing in his criticism of Dr. Brook’s Op-Ed.It appears that some people think it is more important to quash dissent among free market advocates, and others think it is more important to defend the reputation of Objectivism. Neither of these priorities, however, reflects well on the critics.

    It is blatantly inconsistent to espouse tolerance for all freedom lovers except, it seems, for freedom lovers like Stephan. If supporting the “Ron Paul Revolution” means that one can’t argue for a correct analysis of what went wrong in the 1930’s, then who needs it?

    Likewise, it is foolish to reflexively defend Dr. Brook when he is so obviously mistaken. It is Objectivists themselves who damage Objectivism’s reputation when they stake that reputation on every false statement their leaders make.

    Stephan is acting well within the purposes of the Mises Institute by exposing economic falsehoods wherever they might crop up, however inconvenient such truth-telling might be for other organizations and movements.

  • Published: October 1, 2008 2:15 PM

  • Ben O’Neill
  • The comments made objected to the (former) title of Mr Kinsella’s post, which was indeed deceptive and unsustainable on the evidence of his quote. It was completely accurate to say that it was “smearing Objectivism”. Mr Kinsella was not merely articulating a correct understanding of the business cycle. The title of the post implied that Objectivists advocate “pumping more money” (presumably in the current crisis, though it did not elaborate), a conclusion that cannot be sustained on the slender evidence in the quotation.Mr Kinsella’s subsequent change to the new title is welcome and presumably means that he now agrees that the former title was not sustainable on the evidence.Incidentally, since economics is a seperate discipline from philosophy, no argument about the causes of the Great Depression or the business cycle can properly be regarded as a part of Objectivist philosophy. If ARI scholars make an incorrect argument in this regard then this is a matter of their personal understanding of economics, not a matter of Objectivist philosophy.

    It is absurd to characterise the objections to Mr Kinsella’s post as “quashing dissent”. They were well-founded objections (which he has ultimately accepted, to his great credit) to the initially incorrect and unfair title of his post.

  • Published: October 1, 2008 6:02 PM

  • Ben O’Neill
  • If memory serves, Mr Kinsella has also softened the criticism in the post itself, to a much more measured and legitimate critique.
  • Published: October 1, 2008 6:27 PM

  • Michael Smith
  • I join Ben in giving credit to Mr. Kinsella for changing the title of this post.Book ’em Danno: I agree that Rand should differentiate between good and bad Palestinians; given her life-long fight against collectivism and for individualism, I can’t believe Rand would refuse to make such a distinction if the situation called for it. It seems you are drawing a conclusion from one extemporaneous answer and ignoring everything she wrote to the contrary.
  • Published: October 1, 2008 6:28 PM

  • Stephan KinsellaAuthor Profile Page
  • @O’Neill: “Mr Kinsella’s subsequent change to the new title is welcome and presumably means that he now agrees that the former title was not sustainable on the evidence.”No; I just don’t want to derail this into a debate. I believe the Randians’ position is wrong and that remains clear. I agree completely with Cook’s comments. The bizarre hostility of some Objectivists to 100% reserve (i.e., sound, honest) banking, and the advocacy of fractional-reserves, not to mention the ignorant denunciations of Mises and “Kantians”, deserves to be highlighted. I thought more people were aware of this, but apparently not.
  • Published: October 1, 2008 7:50 PM

  • Ben O’Neill
  • Mr Kinsella: Forgive me for jumping to conclusions; when one states that they have modified their statement in response to criticism, it usually means that they accept that criticism. Moreover, not wishing to “derail this into a debate” is a rather odd desire when one publicly gives such an unflattering denunciation of “Randians” on the basis of a peripheral point in an article from a scholar who explicitely argues for the abolition of the Fed and the establishment of a 100% gold standard. As you also point out, Dr Brook is in disagreement with George Reisman, another prominent Objectivist scholar, on this very point, so it is difficult to see how it reflects on “Randians”. It also seems to me very difficult to contend that Objectivists advocate “pumping more money” when they apparently favour getting rid of the Fed altogether.Objectivist views on Kant and Mises (whether ignorant or not) were not highlighted in your post, so I’m afraid I do not see the relevance of this part of your statement.In any case, I agree with the critique in your modified post, but I would note that there is no Objectivist position on the cause of the Great Depression, since Objectivism is not, and does not include, an economic theory.
  • Published: October 2, 2008 2:07 AM

  • Stephan KinsellaAuthor Profile Page
  • O’Neill: No; I just wanted to remove any perceived excuse or impediment to gloss over or ignore the Randians’ erroneous views here.”there is no Objectivist position on the cause of the Great Depression, since Objectivism is not, and does not include, an economic theory”Well, that kind of line is often conveniently trotted out–after Objectivists claim it is a “complete” philosophy; after they, as Objectivists, pontificate on such matters as homosexuality, arts, Rachmaninov, literature, Dostoevsky, female presidents, capes, smoking…. and when called on it they crawfish out of it by saying that this embarrassing position is “not part of Objectivism.” Glad to know it!
  • Published: October 2, 2008 8:08 AM

  • David Veksler
  • Is Ayn Rand is not allowed to express a personal opinion without adding a disclaimer that “it is not part of Objectivism”? I think she intended you to use some common sense to figure the difference between philosophy and fashion, science, or whatnot.After all, we don’t criticize Mises’ theory on the nature of money because he supported utilitarianism. Human Action offered a “complete” economic theory, right?
  • Published: October 2, 2008 8:32 AM

  • Ben O’Neill
  • Whether the deliniation of philosophy from economics is convenient or not, the point is correct in this case. To my understanding, Objectivism encompasses theories of the five major branches of philosophy (including aesthetics) and is complete only in that sense –it does not include a theory of economics, though the epistemology may rule out certain methodologies. Positions on literature and art are therefore part of the philosophy of Objectivism, while Ayn Rand’s positions on homosexuality, Rachmaninov, Dostoevsky, female presidents, smoking, etc., are based on her view of the application of these general theories to specific issues.
  • Published: October 2, 2008 8:35 AM

  • Per-Olof Samuelsson
  • It is possible that Yaron Brook is influenced by Richard Salsman – who is completely wrong on the subject of a 100% gold standard vs. a “fractional” gold standard – but I don’t think one can jump to conclusions merely on the basis of a short line in a press release.
  • Published: October 2, 2008 10:35 AM

  • Per-Olof Samuelsson
  • And by the way: do I count as a “Randian”? I am in complete agreement with the idea that only a 100% gold standard will do.
  • Published: October 2, 2008 10:53 AM

  • Book ’em Danno
  • I wonder what Ayn Rand would think of ARI and Yaron Brook. Rand and Brook believe in an inherent moral superiority of the United States and Israel, the collectivization of security between the two, and the collective right to use violence against, well, just about anybody they subjectively deem as uncivilized- or just happen to be around the targeted group at the time of attack.Rand defends philosophically the act of violence in a singular person’s instance- but her real life example is in the “we”, as in the massively collective entities United States and Israel. Rand stated:“If we go to war with Russia, I hope the ‘innocent’ are destroyed with the guilty. … Nobody has to put up with aggression, and surrender his right of self-defense, for fear of hurting somebody else, guilty or innocent. When someone comes at you with a gun, if you have an ounce of self-esteem, you answer with force, never mind who he is or who’s standing behind him.”

    Killing innocents through collectivism is what both of them really advocate.

    Brook takes it a step further than Rand and argues for an almost celebratory attitude towards killing innocents through state action. Here is Brook on the decimation of 300,000 mostly civilian Japanese in 1945:

    “America should be proud to have dropped the Bomb.”

    Granted, Rand did say, “If nuclear weapons are a dreadful threat and mankind cannot afford war any longer, then mankind cannot afford statism any longer.”

    Yet Brook has a pattern. There are no shortages of savage collectives and ancillary innocents to beat down. He call’s for pre-emption in this regard. After all “they” are savages.

    “Islamic totalitarian states pose a severe threat to the security of the United States,” Brook says, adding that a way to defeat these regimes “is to kill up to hundreds of thousands of their supporters.” This, he said, would “shrink popular support for extremist ideas to a small minority of the population,” instead of the 40% which he claims supports such regimes now.

    How can ARI be considered a champion of anti-collectivism, anti-statism, capitalism and individual rights when Brook and Co. constantly display a bias lending itself to collectivism/statism and forms of violence that make a mockery of the very ideals they claim to espouse?

  • Published: October 2, 2008 11:35 AM

  • Stephan KinsellaAuthor Profile Page
  • @Veksler: “#Is Ayn Rand is not allowed to express a personal opinion without adding a disclaimer that “it is not part of Objectivism”? I think she intended you to use some common sense to figure the difference between philosophy and fashion, science, or whatnot.”She is allowed to do whatever she wants, but not without criticism and ridicule, where warranted; and where she establishes a cult of personality that grays the lines between mere personal preferences and the fundamentals of philosophy (for example, she viewed esthetics as a branch of her philosophy, and stated that Bach was “evil” and Rachmaninoff was “good”; Dostoevsky had an evil “sense of life” while Victor Hugo was “good”; it’s no surprise these are taken by her acolytes not merely as her personal “preferences”), then yes, she needs to specifically state that it is not a “required” view for Objectivists.

    “After all, we don’t criticize Mises’ theory on the nature of money because he supported utilitarianism. Human Action offered a “complete” economic theory, right?”

    As far as I can tell, Mises’s confused views on ethical/value utilitarianism don’t contaminate or affect his economic reasoning–if they did, that would be a fair criticism. By contrast, Rand claimed to have figured out a complete philosophy, everything is “integrated,” “context matters,” blah blah blah, and she quite often mixed her personal preferences in with her other sweeping pronouncements.

    Oh, we forgot to mention facial hair. It means you are hiding something. Evil!

  • Published: October 2, 2008 11:37 AM

  • David Veksler
  • @ Kinsella> esthetics as a branch of her philosophyAesthetics is a branch of philosophy. Aesthetic opinions of particular works on the other hand, are an *application* of both one’s personal taste *and* one’s individual philosophy.

    > stated that Bach was “evil”

    Nope. That’s a lie made up by Rothbard in his play and repeated by people who should know better.

    “Rand did not dislike the classical composers; she merely preferred those of the Romantic period to a greater extent. In The Romantic Manifesto, a book particularly devoted to aesthetics, Rand does not direct a single disparaging remark toward Bach, Mozart, or Beethoven, nor does she in any other works. She writes of all high Western music, “the modern diatonic scale used in Western civilization is a product of the Renaissance. It was developed over a period of time by a succession of musical innovators.”

    http://rebirthofreason.com/Articles/Stolyarov/A_Critique_of_Murray_Rothbards_Sociology_of_the_Ayn_Rand_Cult_(Part_3_of_3).shtml

    > [Rand] claimed to have figured out a complete philosophy, everything is “integrated,”

    Well, reality *is* integrated. That doesn’t mean that a theory about a certain aspect of reality (its basic nature) must include one’s opinions about all other parts of reality. This is why we have concepts for the different sciences like philosophy, economics, physics, chemistry, etc.

    It is rational to apply one’s philosophy to life – people who fail to do are called hypocrites.

  • Published: October 2, 2008 12:05 PM

  • David Veksler
  • @Vincent:> “deception” or “petty ideological bigotry” or “smearing Objectivism”A suggestion: when you use quotation marks in reference to someone’s comments, you are expected to quote their actual words. Using quotation marks to enclose statements someone did not actually make is intellectually dishonest.
  • Published: October 2, 2008 12:17 PM

  • Per-Olof Samuelsson
  • David Veksler: I think you´re right that the statement “Bach was evil” is just a lie made up by Rothbard. (I’ve never seen or heard a word on Bach from Miss Rand.)She did say she didn’t like Beethoven (although she realized his greatness).Btw, both Bach and Beethoven are among my personal favorites.

    Now, the subject here is not Ayn Rand’s musical preferences (or mine) but the question of the gold standard and the causes of the Great Depression.

  • Published: October 2, 2008 2:58 PM

  • Per-Olof Samuelsson
  • And as to the actual issue – whether “Randians” in general subscribe to a 100% gold standard or a “fractional” standard – I think they are divided.Salsman – who is a “fractionalist” – certainly has some influence. But I have noticed that the person who nowadays gives lectures on economics at Objectivist conferences is Brian Simpson – and he has declared that he is an admirer and a disciple of George Reisman. And that must mean that he is in favor of the 100% gold standard.OK, this battle isn’t over. I can just hold my thumbs…
  • Published: October 2, 2008 3:15 PM

  • Per-Olof Samuelsson
  • Ben O’Neill: “Incidentally, since economics is a seperate discipline from philosophy, no argument about the causes of the Great Depression or the business cycle can properly be regarded as a part of Objectivist philosophy. If ARI scholars make an incorrect argument in this regard then this is a matter of their personal understanding of economics, not a matter of Objectivist philosophy.”Well, yes… But the importance of a gold standard has been stressed so often by Ayn Rand and her associates that I think this is actually part of the philosophy. (It is not like Ayn Rand’s view on beards, which can hardly be viewed as a philosophical issue. Or her view that Rachmaninoff is better than Beethoven, for that matter.) It is no coincidence that the money used in “Galt’s Gulch” was exclusively gold and silver.To advocate a “diluted” gold standard, as Salman and some other Objectivists do, I regard as a serious inconsistency. But I grant you the issue is not self-evident. (Just almost,)

    Even Alan Greenspan – while he was still a decent guy – wavered on this issue. If you read his essay “Gold and Economic Freedom” with a magnifying glass, you will see this.

    Unfortunately, too few Objectivists are familiar with Austrian economics. And unfortunately, too few Austrians are familiar with Objectivism.

  • Published: October 2, 2008 4:12 PM

  • Stephan KinsellaAuthor Profile Page
  • @Veksler:”> stated that Bach was “evil”Nope. That’s a lie made up by Rothbard in his play and repeated by people who should know better.”

    You may be right that I confused her condemnation of Beethoven with Bach. That is irrelevant; and I believe your maligning of Rothbard’s honesty is uncalled for–I would assume it was an honest mistake based on the utter stupidity of Rand’s remarks here. Who can keep her cranky stuff straight?

    “”Rand did not dislike the classical composers; she merely preferred those of the Romantic period to a greater extent. In The Romantic Manifesto, a book particularly devoted to aesthetics, Rand does not direct a single disparaging remark toward Bach, Mozart, or Beethoven, nor does she in any other works. She writes of all high Western music, “the modern diatonic scale used in Western civilization is a product of the Renaissance. It was developed over a period of time by a succession of musical innovators.””

    Yes, yes, whatever. She is entitled to her pet preferences. She also had horrible, insulting, obviously biased things to say about non-Western art and music, e.g. that of Asia.

    “> [Rand] claimed to have figured out a complete philosophy, everything is “integrated,”

    Well, reality *is* integrated.”

    With what?

    “It is rational to apply one’s philosophy to life – people who fail to do are called hypocrites.”

    Oh, for God’s sake.

    “> “deception” or “petty ideological bigotry” or “smearing Objectivism”

    “A suggestion: when you use quotation marks in reference to someone’s comments, you are expected to quote their actual words. Using quotation marks to enclose statements someone did not actually make is intellectually dishonest.”

    In a thread like this when people can easily glance up the page to check quotes, it’s hardly “dishonest.” What a serious charge to so lightly hurl at others.
    @Samuelsson
    “David Veksler: I think you´re right that the statement “Bach was evil” is just a lie made up by Rothbard. (I’ve never seen or heard a word on Bach from Miss Rand.)

    “She did say she didn’t like Beethoven (although she realized his greatness).”

    Huge difference!

    “Btw, both Bach and Beethoven are among my personal favorites.”

    You don’t have an evil beard too, do you? Or refrain from taming fire at your fingertips (smoking)??

    “Salsman – who is a “fractionalist” – certainly has some influence. But I have noticed that the person who nowadays gives lectures on economics at Objectivist conferences is Brian Simpson – and he has declared that he is an admirer and a disciple of George Reisman. And that must mean that he is in favor of the 100% gold standard.”

    Oh, good; I hadn’t heard of Simpson.

    “Unfortunately, too few Objectivists are familiar with Austrian economics. And unfortunately, too few Austrians are familiar with Objectivism.”

    I don’t think this is a symmetrical case. One doesn’t need Objectivism to lead a happy life or to be a libertarian or to have sound economic views.

  • Published: October 2, 2008 7:47 PM

  • Ben O’Neill
  • In fairness to Murray Rothbard, his play about Rand (I presume that Mr Veksler is referring to his play ‘Mozart was a Red’, since I am not aware of any other plays Rothbard wrote) was a parody, and so it intentionally exaggerated his critique of Rand and her circle. It is a bit much to call this “a lie”, since it was an intentionally fictional play, with the fictional Carson Sand standing in for Ayn Rand. (Incidentally, the play has Carson Sand denouncing Beethoven and Mozart, not Bach.)It is true that people should be more careful not to confuse Rothbard’s parody with reality, but this is hardly Rothbard’s fault.
  • Published: October 2, 2008 8:11 PM

  • David Veksler
  • @Ben O’Neill:Rothbard makes very similar claims about Bach in other places, like this statement from “The Sociology of the Ayn Rand Cult”:”Preferring Bach, for example, to Rachmaninoff, subjected one to charges of believing in a “malevolent universe.” lf not corrected by self-criticism and psychotherapeutic brainwashing, such deviation could well lead to ejection from the movement.”

    I wasn’t there in the 1960’s, but I did read _The Romantic Manifesto_, which was written in the same time period, and in it Miss Rand states that musical tastes are a matter of personal preference and not subject to moral judgment, since their basis cannot be rationally examined.

    I think I’m done with this thread, but there’s a lot more than can be said on Rothbard’s absurd and malicious vilification of Rand over the years – see
    http://www.noblesoul.com/orc/essays/obj_cult2.html
    http://www.geocities.com/rationalargumentator/mixedpremises.html

  • Published: October 2, 2008 10:01 PM

  • robin
  • Geeze…I googled my son’s name..Carson Sand…and this is what I discover…wow…freaky…won’t disclose any more freaky coincidences…I need to do more research.
  • Published: October 17, 2008 4:50 PM

  • Henrik R Clausen
  • I don’t see ARI calling for not raising interest rates in the link provided. Quote:”By keeping interest rates artificially low and inflating the currency, it created the illusion that homes and subprime mortgages were can’t-miss investments.”Further, there is indeed disagreement WRT fractional reserve banking and 100 % reserve banking. While Rothbard (I’ve just read his book about the American Depression) argues that FRB is inherently fraudelent and 100%RB is the only way to go, I differ and agree with ARI: FRB is, when done properly and on a gold standard, a legitimate way to conduct banking. It permits the banker to use his skill to channel funding to worthy projects, and in returns provides the bank, as well as the depositors in the bank, with a sensible profit.

    The current situation, where the bankers’ skill is replaced by reckless money printing, is obviously absurd. Not only does it aggravate the problem, it also obscures what is the true skill of banking, that of discriminating between profitable and useless projects.

  • Published: July 14, 2009 4:20 AM

  • Henrik R Clausen
  • “Secondly, the rate hikes did help create the depression. It’s obvious that higher interest rates meant less loans being given, which meant a fall in investment.”Missing the mark a bit, are we?Rate hikes triggered the 1929 crash, but didn’t cause it. The cause of the bubble was the inflationary policies of the Fed. The cure was to return to reasonable interest rates – a cure speedily abolished by the Hoover / Roosevelt administrations.

    But I think we need slow, consistent rate hikes, or the economy would be killed overnight.

  • Published: July 14, 2009 4:26 AM

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Kinsella “Intellectual ‘Property'” Interview by Lew Rockwell

A fifteen-minute interview by Lew Rockwell: Podcast #32; MP3 file (8.2MB). As Lew’s site describes it, “Stephan Kinsella podcast on phony rights vs. real ones.” We discussed mainly the moral, libertarian, propertarian, and state-related aspects of patent and copyright, and why there has been confusion about IP among libertarians.

More detailed discussion of these issues can be found on my libertarian publications page; see also my monograph Against Intellectual Property; and my speech and presentation, The Intellectual Property Quagmire, or, The Perils of Libertarian Creationism.

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Left Anarchists and Progressive Taxation (Mises, 2008)

Left Anarchists and Progressive Taxation

09/18/2008

I previously criticized [Down with anti-market “anarchists”; Vandanarchists Rejoice!; both below] the anti-market anarchists’ (“vandarchists”) breaking of Macy’s windows (and the apparent defense of this by even some left “market” anarchists).

I was reminded of this when I read Joe Biden’s obscene statements that it’s the patriotic duty of the rich–well, those who make more than $250k a year, I guess–to consent to the imposition of higher progressive income tax (so that the state can “take” their money “and put it back in the pocket of middle-class people”–put it back?). Now I would have thought libertarians are of course opposed not only to taxation, but also–especially–to progressive taxation, since the latter is punitive, redistributionist, etc.

On another thread, I noted that the vandarchists–these anti-market “anarchists,” and perhaps some left anarchists–seem to assume that any “big” corporation is basically part of the state. Roderick Long replied that the problem is the “high degree of statist involvement. But under present conditions the two tend to be correlated.” I accused the vandarchists of believing that any large firm is suspect because it could not exist in a real free market.

Long offered one possible defense of the Macy’s window smashers as follows (I don’t think he necessarily agrees with it):

Maybe they do think that, but in order to think that bigness is suspect, one doesn’t have to believe that bigness couldn’t be achieved under a free market. All one has to believe is that under a system like ours, bigness can’t be achieved without statist involvement. By analogy: there’s no correlation in general between being well-fed and being a rat fink, but among concentration-camp prisoners there probably is.”

Now, while this is an interesting analogy, I don’t think it’s apt. I don’t regard our society as analogous to a concentration camp; indeed, according to Mises’s insightful test that an economy is not socialist if it has a functioning stock market, the economy, hampered and regulated though it is, is essentially free market. But consider the implications of this argument. If leftists think that “bigness can’t be achieved without statist involvement … under a system like ours,” then wouldn’t affluence also be suspect? Anyone who is wealthy presumptively must have cooperated with the state to basically expropriate the workers. Of course, this is the same old leftist tripe–the view that the west got rich by exploiting the third-world countries. But if you have this view of bigness, of corporations, of society, then you would have to regard wealthy individuals are presumptively corrupt and part of the state. And as not entitled to their ill-gotten loot. Thus, progressive taxation would have to be favored, as a way of taking stolen loot from the robber-rich and returning it to the alienated, exploited workers. Vive la revolucion!

Clarification: Several people have commented that just because an economy is not socialist does not mean it is a “free market”. Sure. I could have been a bit more clear. You can have a free market; a regulated free market; and outright socialism. My point above is not affected. Here is Rothbard’s recounting of Mises’s observation:

One time I asked Professor von Mises, the great expert on the economics of socialism, at what point on this spectrum of statism would he designate a country as “socialist” or not. At that time, I wasn’t sure that any definite criterion existed to make that sort of clear-cut judgment.

And so I was pleasantly surprised at the clarity and decisiveness of Mises’s answer. “A stock market,” he answered promptly. “A stock market is crucial to the existence of capitalism and private property. For it means that there is a functioning market in the exchange of private titles to the means of production. There can be no genuine private ownership of capital without a stock market: there can be no true socialism if such a market is allowed to exist.”

I think Mises was right: if there is a functioning stock market, you cannot have true socialism. Now I was using Mises’s point here analogously to Roderick Long’s example of how those who are fat in a concentration camp are probably collaborating with the guards. I would say that the extreme case of a “concentration camp” is analogous to the extreme case of “true socialism.” Since we have a functioning stock market, we do not have true socialism yet. Yes, our market is hampered and regulated; no, it is not totally free. Of course. But it is not such an outright socialist economy that the only way to prosper is to be part of the exploiting class. Rather, in our very productive economy, it is private enterprise that is productive, despite the shackles imposed on it by the state. There may be reason to presume that a successful corporation “plays by the state’s rules”, but not to conclude that it is part of the exploiting class.

Author:

Stephan Kinsella

Stephan Kinsella is an attorney in Houston, director of the Center for the Study of Innovative Freedom, and editor of Libertarian Papers.

Vandanarchists Rejoice!

Re “Greenpeace Property Destruction Verdict“: Hey, what’s the big deal, really? Who’s to say the Greenpeacers really destroyed any legitimate owner’s “private property“?

I.e., we can never know if any property is really legitimate, due to all the “messiness” of the past–so everything is up for grabs! Newsflash: libertarianism does not heart nihilism.

11:42 pm on September 11, 2008

Down with anti-market “anarchists”

There’s a lot of noise being made by the left- and mutualist-libertarian crowd about the arrest of some so-called “anarchists” (scare quotes because anti-market “anarchists” are not real anarchists, i.e. anarcho-libertarians) and seizure by the police of “anarchist” and anarchist literature, including some by mutualist-libertarian Kevin Carson. From what I can gather from various incoherent media and blog descriptions, an “anarchist” group called the RNC Welcoming Committee was going to protest the Republican convention in Minnesota; some market anarchists tried to join up to make some inroads with the commie “anarchists”, and some Ron Paul supporters. For some reason the cops made arrests and seized literature, which included some of Carson’s writings.

This mutualist-libertarian material apparently was found because some market anarchists wanted to participate in the RNC Welcoming Committee march. (See Kevin Carson, public enemyRNC 08: America, support your patriot youth!Market Anarchists at the RNC: Street View.)Yes, the mutualists and left-anarchists have some good insights about how the state has distorted and corrupted the corporate and business world. But anarchists–real anarchists, i.e., anarcho-libertarians–are not opposed to the market and free enterprise, nor even opposed to “corporations” (see my “In Defense of the Corporation“).

Left-anarchism suspicious of the admixture of state and business is one thing; socialist “anarchism” is another. The “Anticapitalist Bloc” pseudo-anarchists are hostile to free markets and private property rights. Take a look at this video, where one of them condones the breaking of a Macy’s window because of her hatred of “capitalism.” [Note: a libertarian friend told me he thinks this woman perhaps meant by “capitalism” merely state-regulation of markets, which we all oppose. I disagree. Listen for yourself. It’s Macy’s, for crying out loud, not Lockheed or even ADM.] And the commie lingo: “The crowd marched down the sidewalk, and in the right lane of the road when no sidewalk was available. Most of the time the marchers chanted ‘We won’t falter we won’t fail! Let our comrades out of jail!’” Comrades! Ick!

These people are just confused socialists. Sure, I’m glad they are anti-war. But unless you are pro-market, pro-private property, you have no basis to oppose the state, for the state is simply the agency of institutionalized aggression against private property rights. To oppose the state is to support property rights, since opposing aggression means opposing the invasion of property. Conversely, those who oppose property rights inevitably support the state or other forms of aggression.

Of course, the so-called RNC 8 should be freed. Of course, the state is the real enemy. But these pseudo-anarchists are not on our side.

Update: Roderick Long got the impression I was saying Kevin Carson is anti-market (I am not familiar with Gillis). Let me clarify: I tried to distinguish between genuine libertarians and anarchists, on the one hand, and the pseudo-anarchists, by using scare quotes. I never meant to imply that the “left” or market anarchists and mutualists are not libertarian. As far as I know they support individual rights and property rights and oppose aggression; and they rightly oppose–as do I–state-business admixtures or distortions that arise from this. We might disagree on the extent of these distortions, and on some of our personal preferences, but so what.

But anyone who runs around breaking storefront windows and treating Macy’s as some kind of evil state agency is not one of us: not a libertarian, not an anarcho-capitalist, not a market anarchist. (Not that I even see anything wrong with trying to make strategic alliances with these socialist anti-state types, or making inroads with them; but they are not us.) I would think, I would hope, I would expect that Carson and Long would agree with me on this. I certainly did not mean to be unfair to or impugn Carson, who is a sincere and intelligent thinker whose work I admire, even where I do not agree.

1:46 am on September 9, 2008

Archived comments:

Comments (26)

  • Brad Spangler
  • Kinsella has apparently only thought this through half-way. No one has to support *any* state policy. All Kinsella has done is notice the contradictions inherent in statism — even “libertarian” statism.
  • Published: September 18, 2008 10:41 AM

  • Richie
  • Unfortunately, most people view the wealthy as sitting around a pool sipping on champagne and eating caviar all day while “exploiting” workers. Most wealthy people are small-business owners. It’s not the “evil” CEOs earning “exorbitant” salaries.
  • Published: September 18, 2008 10:46 AM

  • Inquisitor
  • If you’re writing in French, it’s Revolution, no “c”. Anyway funny blogpost. 🙂
  • Published: September 18, 2008 10:54 AM

  • fundamentalist
  • Stephan: “…an economy is not socialist if it has a functioning stock market…”

    I see the logic in this, but did Mises mean that a stock market is the test of a totally socialist state? It seams that economies are usually mixed and reside on a continuum from absolute capitalist to absolute socialist. States are either mostly socialist or mostly capitalist. I think European countries would be highly offended to be called capitalists because they have stock markets.

    And how does this square with Mises’s two varieties of socialism, the German and the Russian? German socialism allowed private property on paper, but the state controlled all aspects of business. Did Germany under the Kaizer and under Hitler have stock markets?

  • Published: September 18, 2008 11:10 AM

  • August
  • I think government interference in markets tends to increase the size of corporations because government interference represents a cost. So companies grow larger than they would in a free market in order handle this cost most effeciently. Notice this is a blame free observation that in no way justifies leftist-anarchists breaking windows that they wouldn’t own even in a completely state-free environment.

    It is reasonable to see corporations as the children of the state, but it’s possible to have a future in which they are neither punished for, nor perform, the sins of their father.

  • Published: September 18, 2008 11:13 AM

  • Brian Drum
  • Stephan: “…the economy, hampered and regulated though it is, is essentially free market.”

    No, the “hampered and regulated” part is exactly what makes a market essentially unfree. How can a market be both hampered and free at the same time?

    Calling the US economy a ‘free market’ serves only to confuse people. It makes the term meaningless.

  • Published: September 18, 2008 11:31 AM

  • jp
  • Zimbabwe has a functioning stock market. According to Kinsella, Zimbabwe would therefore have a free market. But that would be a pretty silly conclusion to make as we all know that Zimbabwe has one of the most oppressive governments in the world.

    I agree with fundamentalist that differentiation between capitalist/socialist is more about shades of gray than absolutes.

  • Published: September 18, 2008 11:49 AM

  • Richie
  • Brian Drum: “No, the “hampered and regulated” part is exactly what makes a market essentially unfree”

    Exactly. The U.S. market is not “free”.

  • Published: September 18, 2008 12:05 PM

  • Geoffrey Allan Plauche
  • I agree that the US does not currently have a free market. What we have is a regulated market, a mixed economy. A free market is one that is free of, or at least largely free of, government intervention.
  • Published: September 18, 2008 12:13 PM

  • Walt D.
  • I think New York State and New York City are going to find out why progressive taxation is a bad way to raise revenue. This year, they are going to be short all the windfall they get from Wall Street. California is still in trouble from basing their budget on revenues from the dot.com boom going on for ever.
  • Published: September 18, 2008 6:12 PM

  • Walt D.
  • I think New York State and New York City are going to find out why progressive taxation is a bad way to raise revenue. This year, they are going to be short all the windfall they get from Wall Street. California is still in trouble from basing their budget on revenues from the dot.com boom going on for ever.
  • Published: September 18, 2008 6:13 PM

  • Walt D.
  • I think New York State and New York City are going to find out why progressive taxation is a bad way to raise revenue. This year, they are going to be short all the windfall they get from Wall Street. California is still in trouble from basing their budget on revenues from the dot.com boom going on for ever.
  • Published: September 18, 2008 6:13 PM

  • Walt D.
  • I think New York State and New York City are going to find out why progressive taxation is a bad way to raise revenue. This year, they are going to be short all the windfall they get from Wall Street. California is still in trouble from basing their budget on revenues from the dot.com boom going on for ever.
  • Published: September 18, 2008 6:17 PM

  • Walt D.
  • I think New York State and New York City are going to find out why progressive taxation is a bad way to raise revenue. This year, they are going to be short all the windfall they get from Wall Street. California is still in trouble from basing their budget on revenues from the dot.com boom going on for ever.
  • Published: September 18, 2008 6:18 PM

  • nick Gray
  • Walt- I think we got the message!

    Walt- I think we got the message!

    Walt- I think we got the message!

    Walt- I think we got the message!

    Walt- I think we got the message!

    Read the fine print next to the ‘Submit’ button.

    Read the fine print next to the ‘Submit’ button.

    Read the fine print next to the ‘Submit’ button.

    Read the fine print next to the ‘Submit’ button.

    Read the fine print next to the ‘Submit’ button.

  • Published: September 18, 2008 7:53 PM

  • P.M.Lawrence
  • “There can be no genuine private ownership of capital without a stock market”.

    Rubbish. You could easily have a system with no corporations in which capital was owned individually or by partnerships.

  • Published: September 18, 2008 9:52 PM

  • Inquisitor
  • Yep, I believe Mises said capitalism is characterized by a stock market – not necessarily laissez-faire capitalism, though.
  • Published: September 18, 2008 10:22 PM

  • Peter
  • Rubbish. You could easily have a system with no corporations in which capital was owned individually or by partnerships.

    And the owners can’t buy and sell their shares? What kind of “ownership” is that?

  • Published: September 18, 2008 11:20 PM

  • P.M.Lawrence
  • A solen proprietorship can always sell out, and a partner can always sell his stake (usually to people who were already partners). Nothing stops people in this system from having ownership of businesses, and there is nothing necessary about a stock market to make such ownership possible.

    But even if none of that selling up could be done, owners would still be owners.

  • Published: September 19, 2008 1:57 AM

  • Peter
  • If they can sell, a “place” where offers to buy and sell can be made will spring up…and that’s a “stock market”
  • Published: September 19, 2008 6:44 AM

  • Bill
  • Anybody else subscribe to the position that progressive taxation is fair because access to infrastructure is proportional to wealth?

    That is, the wealthy receive more benefit from the government so they should pay more for it. If I can’t afford a car, what good is a road? If I can’t afford stock, what good is the regulation of the stock market that ensures fairness and transparency? Doesn’t a wealthy person benefit more from a police force than someone who has nothing (or very little) to steal?

  • Published: September 19, 2008 11:34 AM

  • P.M.Lawrence
  • Peter wrote ‘If they can sell, a “place” where offers to buy and sell can be made will spring up…and that’s a “stock market”‘.

    No, any more than a place where you can buy and sell fruit is a bread market. A stock market is a market where you can buy and sell stocks, and if business ownership is not corporate, there are no stocks.

    It is also not necessarily true that any such place would spring up, since the businesses wouldn’t necessarily be fungible and/or liquid enough; all sales might need to be too hands on and sui generis. For instance, when a sole proprietor wishes to retire, the most practical way to transfer the business as a going concern is for the owner to take on the buyer as a junior partner for a couple of years or so, then be bought out. This both allows the transfer of specialist skills and business goodwill, and allows the necessary capital to be brought together more conveniently. This also applies to intergenerational transfers, particularly in regard to getting the capital together.

    And, of course, you could still have business ownership even if it were impractical to trade in businesses, just as you can own a house even when the market for house sales has collapsed.

    Try googling for Meir Kohn on mediaeval capital markets (“capital markets before 1600”).

  • Published: September 19, 2008 8:53 PM

  • newson
  • fundamentalist & jp are right.

    fascist germany certainly had a stock market, though hitler purged it of jewish brokers in 1933.

    saddam hussein’s national socialist iraq had a functioning stock market. there was a strong rally just before the 2003 allied invasion.

    cuba has no bourse, north korea likewise. can’t think of any others off the top of my head.

  • Published: September 20, 2008 8:07 AM

  • Rob Biddle
  • It all depends on what is meant by “Capitalism”.

    If the word is used to merely refer to private ownership of capital then you could call a Slave who was allowed to maintain ownership of his shoes a Capitalist.

    The United States represents a Capitalist economy in that way; the Slaves are even allowed to trade their shoes.

    Private ownership of Capital is not the only thing necessary to qualify as a “Free Market”.

  • Published: November 17, 2008 11:34 AM

  • Andy von Guerard
  • Bill,

    In a state a fairer way to tax the rich is through usage fees and a sales tax that way they are directly taxed for what they use and people who don’t use said government serive (or who don’t buy luxery items that would taxed with sales tax) wouldn’t have to pay the tax.

    In a perfect free market system everyone would just pay the fair price for what they use, no more no less. But since the state exists it should at least replicate this idea the best it can, and a progressive income tax does NOT do that.

  • Published: November 25, 2008 2:11 AM

  • Matt
  • What if the state regulates the stock market?
  • Published: November 25, 2008 2:22 AM

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A punk with a mission

From another thread:

Sigh.

Submitted by nskinsella on Wed, 2008-09-17 08:37.

Of course Hoppe is not a homophobe nor bigot; Ghertner has obviously appointed himself high PC commissar and is looking to root out deviations from his state-fostered PC faith. First: in the quote Ghertner uses, Hoppe is talking about “the advocates of alternative, non-family-centered lifestyles such as, for instance, individual hedonism, parasitism, nature-environment worship, homosexuality, or communism”–not homosexuals, but “advocates” thereof. Second, this is arguably a prediction, not a policy Hoppe necessarily personally favors. Third, he’s speaking in stark language here but is obviously talking about tendencies, not ironclad 100% laws–he’s predicting that free societies would tend to shun those who advocate mores and practices that undercut the socio-cultural underpinnings of society. Fourth, the “physically removed from society” part does not imply aggression–a charitable reader would realize this probably only means physical separation–i.e., that societies would tend to shun enemies of society and to segregate with those of their own kind–fellow inhabitants of “society” who appreciate the cultural underpinnings necessary for it. This in no way implies that aggression is permissible, nor that living among homosexuals is problematic. But Ghertner is not a charitable reader. He’s a punk with a mission.

xenophobia

Submitted by nskinsella on Wed, 2008-09-17 09:27.

BTW, not that I have any attachment to the idea, but what is unlibertarian or even immoral about xenophobia? Isn’t it rather natural?

thick and xenophobia

Submitted by nskinsella on Wed, 2008-09-17 10:54.

Well even nasty xenophobia is not unlibertarian per se. But what I mean is, isn’t a degree of xenophobia natural and not even immoral at all, and not even violative of “thick” libertarianism? Even if we “ought” to be tolerant and cosmopolitan, does this imply that there ought to be no attachment whatsoever to “one’s own kind”? (which of course implies a degree of xenophobia). If xenophobia is wrong, then any preference for any individual based on their group memberships is also wrong. E.g., it would be “immoral” and against “thick” libertarian precepts for a black father to prefer his daughter marry a black man (or even for him to prefer that she be heterosexual); or to attend a black church; or for him to join the NAACP, etc. I don’t see that some inter-group preferences are necessarily immoral or illiberal; and they all imply (are correlatives of) a type or degree of xenophobia.

I.e., even if we ought to be “cosmopolitan” and “tolerant” and “individualist,” there is a range. I myself fall on the extreme “tolerant/individualist” range, personally, but *as* a genuinely tolerant liberal I have no gripe with those on the more “collectivist” end of the spectrum–so long as they don’t fall into irrationality, outright collectivism, real racism, and nastiness, rudeness, and intolerance. The real problem with genuine racism is that it’s rude, mean, petty, bad manners, self-destructive and irrational. And this is yet another problem with the princess-and-the-pea silly pinheads like Ghertner–like the boy who cried wolf, they make people skeptical of real claims of bigotry, by promoting the state’s irrational and politically-motivated concepts thereof.

Were we supposed to know that?

Submitted by nskinsella on Wed, 2008-09-17 15:16.

That “Micha” is Jewish? I had no idea–and don’t care. The problem with opposing “mild collectivisms” is they permeate human life. As I noted, I am much less into that stuff than most people–especially more than most religious people. Jews engage in a form of “mild collectivism” and xenophobia, no? I had a Jewish friend tell me, point blank, to my face one time, during lunch–an atheist Jew, mind you, who was nonetheless “kosher”–that one reason for advocating Jews to be kosher was to impose a cost on them to associate with goyem–to reduce the chance of intermarriage and loss of culture etc. Now I found that to be offensive and irrational, … but whatever.

Neither Jewish, nor Gay

Submitted by nskinsella on Wed, 2008-09-17 17:28.

Let’s get that straight, eh?

Hoppe never claimed gays “must be” removed. He said that *advocates* of alternative lifestyles and values contrary to that of a “covenant founded for the purpose of protecting family and kin”–those who “habitually promoting lifestyles incompatible with this goal”–would be physically removed from society (which means ostracism, tendencies, voluntary segregation, not aggression or trespass). Now you may view gays as “habitually promoting lifestyles incompatible with” the goal of “protecting family and kin,” but I, and Hoppe, do not. How intolerant, closed-minded, parochial, and biased of you. Tsk tsk.

Ghertner, can you read?

Submitted by nskinsella on Thu, 2008-09-18 17:22.

Do you have comprehension problems? Or general psychological ones? (as your bizarre castigation of your grandma and your family’s traditions would indicate)

I wrote: “Now you may view gays as “habitually promoting lifestyles incompatible with” the goal of “protecting family and kin,” but I, and Hoppe, do not.”

You: “Then why did he bother mentioning them in his shit list of people who must be physically removed from society?”

Dude, the sentence–ONE sentence you keep taking out of context–was: “They-the advocates of alternative, non-family-centered lifestyles such as, for instance, individual hedonism, parasitism, nature-environment worship, homosexuality, or communism-will have to be physically removed from society, too, if one is to maintain a libertarian order.”

The “such as … homosexuality” modifies “non-family-centered lifestyles.” He is talking about ADVOCATES of such lifestyles, not about those who merely practice such lifestyles. An advocate of a non-family-centered lifestyle seems to be just a way of describing someone openly hostile to the family-centered culture that many people believe must form the core or basis of any functioning society, even a libertarian one. Consider an example: There is nothing wrong with someone choosing to be a confirmed bachelor; say, a priest, or a single man. But such people usually live in a normal society that is constituted by the family-centered structure. Priests don’t run around saying everyone should practice abstinence. They are not hostile to a family-centered order. Likewise, gays are not either. It is those who openly oppose and are hostile to these traditional family-centered norms and institutions and values that would (it is argued) be ostracized and shunned. This argument is not bigoted at all; it is not even advocating it, it is merely an opinion about how libertarian societies would in practical reality be successfully implemented. You don’t have to agree with it, but it is not a bigoted analysis.

As for physically removing–this does not imply trespass or aggression or removing people from their own property. It means to segregate from.

You have issues

Submitted by Stephan Kinsella (not verified) on Mon, 2008-09-22 10:55.

Ghertner, it’s obvious you have a plurality of problems–mental, ethical, psychological, familial. You are just one messed up sad sack star trek geek aren’t you? With some kind of chip on your shoulder for authority and your betters. Hoppe does not say he “hates” those people. Homosexuality is not on the list anyway, but “advocates of”.

“What in the world does it mean to say that homosexuals do not habitually promote homosexuality? Do libertarians not habitually promote libertarianism?”

this is dishonest: libertarianism is a political philosophy. A belief system. Of course libertarians qua libertarians are advocates of it. Homosexuality is a sexual preference or condition. Are priests “advocates of celibacy”? Are heterosexuals “advocates of heterosexuality”? Are mixed-race couples “advocates of mixed-race marriage”? Are pot-smokers “advocates of pot-smoking”? Is a woman who chooses to have an abortion an “advocate of abortion”? Hoppe obviousuly was referring to those who are openly hostile to, who agitate against, the traditional, family-centered morals and institutions that arguably undergird any workable covenant-based libertarian society. Your dishonesty, your insecurity, your hatred of authority and your betters and your desire to petulantly lash out at them is reprehensible. Yes, you have the individual right to go around maligning good people who don’t deserve it. Yes, you can also utter curse words and go get drunk a bar. Enjoying your freedom, kiddie?

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To expect the welfare-warfare state–which taxes, regulates, murders, invades, bombs, hampers, conscripts, lies, imprisons, steals, and invades–which impoverishes us and hampers the economy, which penalizes innocent behavior and wastes trillions of dollars–which imposes antitrust, tort, FDA regulations and penalties on companies–to expect this agency to “create” legitimate property rights or to add “wealth” to the economy–and by setting up a state-run bureaucracy to grant monopolies to “applicants,” under the oversight of the bunch of federal “judges”–is naive and confused beyond belief. It is certainly not a libertarian view.

See also Regret: The Glory of State Law, where I wrote:

Now libertarian proponents of state legal systems are for some reason optimistic about the ability of state legislature and courts to promulgate just laws. Objectivist attorney Murray Franck , for example, wrote:

Just as the common law evolved to recognize “trespass by barbecue smoke,” it would have evolved to recognize property in the airwaves and in intellectual creations. But even if it could be established somehow that the common law would never have recognized intellectual property rights, this would not be an argument against such rights. The common law often requires legislation to correct it (for example, in recognizing the rights of women). Indeed it is a myth that the common law evolves to reflect, and that legislation always is in conflict with, the requirements of human nature. The same minds that employ induction and deduction to decide a particular case, making common law, can employ those methods to legislate universal laws.

Hayek also believed that case-law might need occasional “correction” by the legislature (see my Legislation and the Discovery of Law in a Free Society, p. 171). Both Franck and Hayek here express confidence that it is possible for the state–via its courts and legislatures–to issue “just” law. Well, I don’t know about that. Here we have a “bad” judicial interpretation of a “bad” legislated statute. Oh, well, I guess they can at least “regret” it.

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