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Update: from: Knowledge vs. Calculation: But factor 2, technical-causal knowledge, has continued to increase over time (even though impeded and distorted by state patent law). The human race thus can and obviously has accumulated a “fund of experience,” as Hayek calls it, that contributes to human progress and the creation of wealth. 1 It is not conflating correlation with causation, nor minimizing the crucial role of money prices in rational economic calculation, to explain today’s immense prosperity as the result primarily of the accumulation of knowledge, since there has been no obvious and significant improvement in property rights and money price calculation. (My own view is that the industrial revolution happened when the accumulated technical and related knowledge reached a certain tipping point; I agree with Hoppe that other explanations for the IR are wanting but am not persuaded by Hoppe’s theory either; but I am not sure, and this is neither here not there.)

See From the Malthusian Trap to the Industrial Revolution: An Explanation of Social Evolution (PFS 2009):

A speech given in May 2009 to the fourth annual conference of the Property and Freedom Society at the Hotel Karia Princess in Bodrum, Turkey.

Video by Sean Gabb, Director of the Libertarian Alliance.

Update:

“From the Malthusian Trap to the Industrial Revolution: An Explanation of Social Evolution,” ch. 4 in The Great Fiction. [latest references: PFP041 | Hans-Hermann Hoppe, From the Malthusian Trap to the Industrial Revolution: An Explanation of Social Evolution (PFS 2009)]

Necessary and Sufficient Causes of the Industrial Revolution: Some Critical Remarks on Mises and His ExplanationThe Great Fiction: Property, Economy, Society, and the Politics of Decline.

[fvplayer id=”6″]

See also Charles Murray’s review of Nicholas Wade’s recent book, A Troublesome Inheritance: “Then, with courage that verges on the foolhardy, he adds a chapter that incorporates genetics into an explanation of the West’s rise during the past 600 years.”

  1. See Kinsella, “Hayek’s Views on Intellectual Property,” C4SIF Blog (Aug. 2, 2013); idem, “Intellectual Property and the Structure of Human Action,” StephanKinsella.com (Jan. 6, 2010). See also Kinsella, “Tucker, ‘Knowledge Is as Valuable as Physical Capital,’” C4SIF Blog (March 27, 2017) and George Reisman, “Progress In a Free Economy,” The Freeman (July 1, 1980). See also Julio H. Cole, “Patents and Copyrights: Do the Benefits Exceed the Costs?”, J. Libertarian Stud. 15, no. 4 (Fall 2001): 79–105, p. 84 et seq., discussing the importance of technical progress (not to be confused with patents) to economic growth. Cole cites several studies in n.12. []
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Proto-Carsonian Five-Year-Old

I was talking with my 5 year old on the way to school this morning about us driving to the airport tomorrow to pick up a friend. My son mused that it would be cool if we could fly to the airport to pick up our friend, instead of driving; and then he started jabbering about how we sometimes fly (from Houston) to Baton Rouge, and sometimes drive, when we go there to visit family. Then he blurted out, a sort of puzzled-epiphany look on his face, “But!–for some weird reason, you have to pay to fly on an airplane, but driving on the roads is free!”

Update: I’m also reminded that a few weeks ago when my son and I were skyping with a libertarian friend in some South American country, when my friend asked my son what he thought about the government, my son replied, “The government should be arrested.”

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Voodoo Lager, Lone Star Beer, and Trade Wars

The hapless Canadians’ ire over the stupid “Buy American” movement in the US reminded me of an amusing brief trade-war saber-rattling between Texas and Louisiana back in 1991. The story is reported in Call It Voodoo, but Texas Surrenders in Beer Battle. The Texas Alcoholic Beverage Commission banned Louisiana’s Dixie Blackened Voodoo Lager Beer earlier that year “because, they said, its name and label, which shows a swamp, conjure images of witchcraft and the occult.” In retaliation, “the Louisiana House passed a resolution banning the sale of Lone Star Beer”. Finally, “faced with legal questions, a retaliatory ban on a Texas beer and widespread ridicule, the regulators changed their minds” and revoked the ban. But not without a harumph: Dixie’s owner said at first she thought it was a joke–but a Texas bureaucrat opined: “A lot of people think we were being silly, but we still feel like the voodoo connotation is not in good taste and not in the public interest,” and another one intoned that the prohibition “has to do with your cults and public safety areas. … “We have to keep an eye on a lot of things like that.”

I remember the issue because I was then a senior in law school, and this example was used to illustrate the effects of the interstate commerce clause. If I recall, the question was whether Louisiana’s retaliation was constitutional–if I remember, even though it was in response to an unconstitutional action by Texas, Louisiana’s action was still itself unconstitutional–both were unconstitutional burdens on interstate commerce–protectionism of a sort. Louisiana’s action here reminded me of the Federation of Canadian Municipalities’ endorsement of “a controversial proposal to support communities that refuse to buy products from countries that put trade restrictions on products and services from Canada.”

I doubt the ban hurt Dixie–I remember looking for it after this incident.

[Cross-posted at LRC]

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My old Against Monopoly Blog Posts

Here are some of my older AgainstMonopoly.org blogposts, which were not cross-referenced here (but will be going forward):

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My old Mises.org Blog posts

I’m not cross-posting but had not been until recently. Here is a list of my older Mises.org blog posts.

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Estoppel and Restitution debate on Mises.org

I had several comments on this thread–regarding why restitution is not primary and is in fact impossible–see my comments here, here, here, here.

[Update: Perfect Restitution is Impossible; An Unreachable Goal.]

Excerpts below:

Mises forums: » Economics» Political Theory»Estoppel – Argumentation Ethics – Aggression:

nskinsella replied on Thu, May 21 2009 6:00 PM

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:

 

 

 nskinsella:

 

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:

 

 

 nskinsella:

 

First, my argument is not limited to restitution. In fact, I think restitution is largely a chimera. It is not possible to make the victim of rape or murder “whole.”

 

 

Kinsella, your notion of “restitution” is unrealistic/utopian magical nonsense. A realistic conception of “restitution” does not make this mistake that all crimes can be undone completely as if they had never happened. You set up a straw man.

 

 

Restitution is quite commonly held up as the ideal, and is stated to be “making the victim whole” or “putting him in the position that he was before the crime.” I agree that it is unrealistic and utopian. In fact, it is impossible, since crimes cannot be undone.

If you can give a coherent, realistic, justifiable explanation of what restitution short of this is, please share it.

 

 

Don’t be coy. We both know you’re familiar with realistic restitution.

 

 

It either makes someone whole, restores them, or it doesn’t. It doesn’t, since it’s not possible. If it doesn’t do this, I’m not sure what it is. IN any event, it’s not primary, as I explain below. The right to retaliate is. I believe over time this would tend to morph into money damages which are related to the right to retaliate, and may be called restitution. But if it’s not real restitution, and if it’s not based on some coherent standard like the right to proportional punishmet, it’s purely arbitrary and has little to do with justice, IMO.

 

 

 

 

 nskinsella:
But as it is, restitution is just sum of money paid to the victim or his estate. If the sum of money were sufficient to make him whole, I’d agree this would be just.

 

Ah, but see… This is why you make such a big deal of your flawed utopian conception of restitution. You use it as the standard by which to judge realistic restitution as inadequate and arbitrary. Bad argument.

 

 nskinsella:
But as it cannot, then the award of money is utterly arbitrary and without any standards whatsoever. There are simply no boundaries to it. It’s just “some amount of money”. Fine; but why call this “restitution” then; and why assume that “paying some sum of money” is all that the victim is entitled to?

 

Your retribution theory has no non-arbitrary standard, so what’s your point? Come on, Stephan, this argument is disingenuous. Of course there are boundaries and non-arbitrary standards.

 

 

Yes, but this is not like line drawing or a continuum issue. In a boundary dispute between blackacre and greenacre, there are clear areas, and we can decide on a place to put the fence, even if it’s not millimeter-precise. In proportional punishment, if we are punishing a minor crime, we know that capital punishment is too severe. So there are limits, that constrain where we place the line in the gray zone. But since paying someone money does not restore them, then what possible standard can you put on how much moeny to award someone? It can’t be *purely* arbitrary. You have to enunciate *some* standard–some boundaries on what is clearly too low, and clearl too high. If your standard is “whatever restores the victim”–this doesn’t do the trick for enunciating a standard, since nothing restores the victim (for violent crimes say–but for mundane theft of a homogenous owned object, it might–you take my $200 TV, then $200, or maybe $400, can make me whole, by letting me buy a new TV; a million bucks is too much).  I think the standard is: however much money the victim can–or could, if punishment is not literally permitted–bargain away with *this aggresor* his right to punish.

The only other standard I can think of is: how much the victim *would have agreed upon before the crime* to let the aggressor commit those acts with the victim’s consent–but quite obviuosly, that leads to infinite amounts of damage in many cases, such as rape or murder. So this is not the appropriate standard.

We are left with the rihgt to proportionally retaliate as the appropriate way to gauge how much money damages to award. Since you reject this, and since the other possible standards are inappropriate–“making the victim whole” or “what you would have agreed to before the crime”–you are left with literally *no standards*, Geofff–so unless you can articulate one, instead of just punting it to the courts as if their arbitrary, standardless decisions amount to justice–then you are off base in thinking restitution can be primary. It is secondary because the only way it can be based on some objective standards, some coherent boundaries, is if you base it on the right to punish, which must logically therefore be primary.

 

 

You’re familiar with legal history. For stolen, lost and damaged goods there are prevailing market prices to refer to, for instance. there will be disagreement over the exact amount that is justified in some cases but broad agreement over acceptable ranges tend to develop.

 

 

 

I agree with you, for some stolen items.

 

But no, I disagree entirely, for violent crimes against the body.

 

 

 

Sure, some things are hard to put a monetary reward to, like a person’s life. But your retribution standard suffers from the same difficulties and adds more, even violates the legal principle that someone should not judge his own case.

 

 

I completely disagree, for the reasons given above, and as adumbrated at length in my JLS Estoppel piece.

There is NO “reward” to the victim of murder, Geoff. There is no real restitution possible. And you are wrong to think that there are no boundaries on proportional punishment. There are. Given the constraint that it’s legitimate to punish an aggressor in a manner proportionate to his aggression, reasonable people can identify upper and lower boundaries, and work to draw a line between them. There are standards and bondaries. But there are NONE for your floating abstraction of “restitution” unanchored to any standard whatsoever.

 

 

As for the meaning of restitution, it includes a monetary settlement. Drop the tendentious scare quotes.

 

 

It’s not tendentious, it’s sincerely my view, since I don’t think idealized, real restitution is possible.

 

 

 

 nskinsella:

 

 

I have explained this in detail in the articles linked. It is simply because if the aggressor uses the victim’s body as a means, if he invades the borders of th victim’s body, if he uses the victim’s body or property despite the victim’s objection, he is endorsing the rule that doing this is permissible; and it is thus inconsistent of him to rely on an incompatible rule, which he must do, if he himself objects to being punished. In short, he is estopped from complaining.

 

 

This is just your estoppel theory, which I have raised objections to already, objections you’ve seen explained by me in far more detail elsewhere.

 

 

Just? JUST? 🙂

Stephan Kinsella [email protected] www.StephanKinsella.com

nskinsella replied on Thu, May 21 2009 10:03 PM

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:

 

 

 Stephen Forde:
Well, first the question of whether or not someone has a right to do something is separate from whether it is good to do. Kinsella’s argument proves that anyone has a right to punish an aggressor proportionately. If he finds it good and he has the right, that’s all the justification that is necessary.

 

I don’t think Kinsella’s argument proves any such thing, and both myself and others have given reasons why. See our earlier posts.

 

 

Yes, Plauche has already disproved this. Just see past archives. Move along, nothing to see here.

 

 

 

 Stephen Forde:
Well, that didn’t really answer the question. I think pacifist arguments are about as good as yours. I find your simultaneous disapproval of punishment and approval of self-defense odd.

 

Nothing odd about it at all. My position on rights and self-defense in this sense is standard libertarian fare. There are huge obvious differences between using what violence is necessary in self-defense to put an end to rights-violations, on the one hand, and going beyond this to exacting vengance in the form of retributive punishment, on the other.

 

 

I agree with you that there are differences, but disagree that this partial-pacifism is “standard libertarian fare.” Rothbard was for punishment, for example. Proportional punishment is very standard libertarian — though I’ll grant you a sizeable chunk of libertarians favor restitution (as do I), and many of these oppose retribution (though usually on consequentialist grounds).

 

 

Violence is prima facie bad/wrong, and you need to provide reasons for why it might be justified in some circumstances. Defending against rights violations, within the principle of proportionality, is a no-brainer. You don’t have an obligation to passively let someone steal from, beat, maim or kill you. A pacifist disagrees with this, sure. But pretty much by definition a pacifist can’t prevent you from using violence in self-defense; he has no basis for making it illegal, for making pacificism legitimately enforceable.

 

 

Agreed. And if I punish my aggressor, you can’t punish me back, if you don’t believe in punishment. All you can do is favor his right to get “restitution” from me. But if I proportionately punish him, then presumably the restitution I owe him cancels what he owes me–so we are back to the retributionist position which holds punishment to be primary, but it can be traded off against restitution.

You know, Plauche, I was reading Hans Ohanian’s Einstein’s Mistakes last night–as is my wont–and on p. 206 I came across a quote from a letter of Einstein’s when he was groping for his solution to general relativity, with apparent successes alternating with failures, until he finally got it right. As Ohanian writes,

 

 

For Einstein, the lengthy quest for his revolutionary theory of general relativity wast he best of times and the worst of times. As he described it later, “The years of searching in the dark for a truth that one feels but cannot express, the intense desire and the alternations of confidence and misgivings until one breaks through to clarity and undertanding, are known only to him who has himself experienced them.”

 

 

Ah, yes, this reminds me of those fumbling days in law school, when I dimly glimpsed the truths of estoppel … until finally one day all became clear.

Maybe–just maybe–one day, you can understand me too, in the sense Einstein meant. 😉

Stephan Kinsella [email protected] www.StephanKinsella.com

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nskinsella replied on Thu, May 21 2009 10:08 PM

 

 Stephen Forde:

 

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:
As far as I’m concerned, the burden of proof lies with the person who would use violence period.

 

So, in other words, your doctrine has no teeth, i.e. it’s unenforceable.

 

 

 

I think I disagree with this. I think even a non-retributist theory is enforceable. Self-defense and the right to forcefully extra restitution are meaningful, as are various social ostracism measures. Probably this is all that’s needed, realistically. It’s just that (a) this means “restitution” is arbitrary, not anchored in anything; (b) there is no reason to deny the right to punish; (c) occasional ad hoc retribution *will* occur, and the system will either have to condone or punish it. Of course it will condone it, so in effect leading to a justification of punishment at least in some circumstances.

Stephan Kinsella [email protected] www.StephanKinsella.com

nskinsella replied on Fri, May 22 2009 10:05 AM

 

 Brainpolice:

 

 

1) It does not follow from the fact that someone endorses aggression for a given circumstance that he necessarily endorses by that very action aggression in any and all circumstances or the circumstances of the victims choosing. If he’s got a democratic majoritarian theory of justice, then that implies the endorsement of aggression under a certain set of circumstances but not in others, thus allowing the aggressor to complain coherently if wrongly under the latter set of circumstances. Sure, we don’t think such a theory is valid, but estoppel itself does not show this. You’ll no doubt say that AE does show this, but as you know I disagree. At any rate, estoppel is much more limited in what it can establish than is usually let on.

 

In fact, such a line of argument is little more than a rhetoric trick. It purposefully ignores any argument I may present and ends up being a nice driveby “I win” sort of thing. “You did bad thing X, therefore you cannot have a rational argument against anyone in the world doing bad thing X to you”. This quickly devolves into a sea of hypocrisy and regress. Apparently we don’t even have to provide a positive case for using violence on people as “punishment”, we can simply make a sophisticated “he did it” argument. But the fact that “he did it” is not really relevant to whether or not it is justified for you to do it in turn. The effect of this argument is actually to avoid having to rationally justify punishment by merely shifting all burden of proof to the punished and then trying to claim that the punished cannot even meet such a burden of proof because “they did it”.

I have no problem calling this argument sophistry – for it takes the form of a carte blanch justification in the absence of an actual justification by ruling out the possibility of rationally argueing with the would-be-justifier in the first place. The justification is simply presupposed as if it was “self-evident” – which means that no formal justification as actually given. The appeal to the offender thus becomes a distraction from the fact that the proponent of punishment has not provided a justification for punishment. These purely “negative proofs” of the Hoppean form aren’t really proofs at all, they take the form of drive-by argument winners. But when one thinks deeply about it, it isn’t even a legitimate argument. It constitutes “proof by ruling out the possibility of you argueing against me in the first place, so I can ignore your arguments completely and just declare that you implicitly justify my position”. Hence, the wielder of such arguments doesn’t even have to really prove anything.

Their correctness is presupposed!

 

 

I am continually mystified by fellow libertarians, who already (for some reason) believe in the objective superiority of libertarian ethics over competing ethics, reach with horror at a libertarian argument based … on the idea that libertarian ethics are indeed objectively superior to alternatives. Whatever.

Oh, well, I guess there is an aversion on the part of some to “knock-down” arguments–to them, everything has to always be an on-going, open-ended “conversation”. (See Hoppe’s discussion of “knockdown” arguments in the Intro to Ethics of Liberty; also various comments in A Theory of Socialism and Capitalism re positivism, linked below.) Modernists are big skeptics/relativists, and have an aversion to any argument that even purports to “prove” something definitive.

Stephan Kinsella [email protected] www.StephanKinsella.com

here,

 

 

 nskinsella:

 

First, my argument is not limited to restitution. In fact, I think restitution is largely a chimera. It is not possible to make the victim of rape or murder “whole.”

 

 

Kinsella, your notion of “restitution” is unrealistic/utopian magical nonsense. A realistic conception of “restitution” does not make this mistake that all crimes can be undone completely as if they had never happened. You set up a straw man.

 

 

nskinsella replied on Thu, May 21 2009 4:49 PM

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:

 

 

 nskinsella:

 

First, my argument is not limited to restitution. In fact, I think restitution is largely a chimera. It is not possible to make the victim of rape or murder “whole.”

 

 

Kinsella, your notion of “restitution” is unrealistic/utopian magical nonsense. A realistic conception of “restitution” does not make this mistake that all crimes can be undone completely as if they had never happened. You set up a straw man.

 

 

Restitution is quite commonly held up as the ideal, and is stated to be “making the victim whole” or “putting him in the position that he was before the crime.” I agree that it is unrealistic and utopian. In fact, it is impossible, since crimes cannot be undone.

If you can give a coherent, realistic, justifiable explanation of what restitution short of this is, please share it. But as it is, restitution is just sum of money paid to the victim or his estate. If the sum of money were sufficient to make him whole, I’d agree this would be just. But as it cannot, then the award of money is utterly arbitrary and without any standards whatsoever. There are simply no boundaries to it. It’s just “some amount of money”. Fine; but why call this “restitution” then; and why assume that “paying some sum of money” is all that the victim is entitled to?

 

 

 

 nskinsella:
I believe retribution is primary.

 

Why?

 

 

 

I have explained this in detail in the articles linked. It is simply because if the aggressor uses the victim’s body as a means, if he invades the borders of th victim’s body, if he uses the victim’s body or property despite the victim’s objection, he is endorsing the rule that doing this is permissible; and it is thus inconsistent of him to rely on an incompatible rule, which he must do, if he himself objects to being punished. In short, he is estopped from complaining. Because he is estopped from objecting, the victim may proceed since he is not getting any objection–the inabiltiy of the aggressor to coherently object is what satisfies the victim and the relevant civilized, justification-seeking community that the victim’s use of responsive force based on the same maxim that the aggressor himself has promulgated, is justified.

It really does not matter if it does not satisfy the aggressor, or the rest of the uncivilized outlaws–or if it does not satisfy you. It is the victim who seeks to act, and it is the civilized community to whom he seeks to demonstrate that his actions are indeed not aggression but warranted. It is my view that reflecting on the aspects of the aggressor-victim relationship as noted above will as a matter of fact satisfy justice-seeking libertarians, and that is all that one can ask of any theory–they cannot be self-enforcing, after all, and failure to persuade someone is not an indicia of falsity.

Stephan Kinsella [email protected] www.StephanKinsella.com

nskinsella replied on Thu, May 21 2009 4:56 PM

 

 wilderness:

 

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:

 

 

 wilderness:

 

Yeah, without retribution this is as far as I could get in my own thinking.  It would be a frightening world:

 

 

 wilderness:

 

Now say this criminal lives next door.  I would not want to live next to somebody or deal with somebody that murdered and tends to become an animal.   They are in plain sight.  So if they don’t leave, then I might have too or else the property line might turn into the North-South Korea border region.  I wouldn’t sleep well otherwise.  So if they force me to move cause I know they killed somebody, but nothing can be done about it cause it’s no longer a self-defense situation makes living uneasy there anymore so yes, I would move and feel that person forced me to move due to the threat I see.

 

 

 

 

I think you’re conflating retributive punishment with restraint. The purpose of retributive punishment is vengeance, to inflict harm and suffering on the criminal. What you’re looking for above is a justification for restraining a standing threat, such as by means of ostracism.

 

 

So ostracism, as Giles said – eviction from the community.  I see the difference now between retribution and restraining a threat.  I was wondering how far retribution could go without actually killing the person, but since they are still alive I still find them a threat in the community.  Eviction would take care of this.  Thanks.

 

 

Incidentally, I go into all this in detail here: Fraud, Restitution, and Retaliation: The Libertarian Approach

 

in particular see this part:

Finally, let me note that just because the right to forcefully respond, including use of force for not only defensive or restitutive purposes, but also for retaliation or retribution, does not mean that we would expect a libertarian society to actually employ punishment often in practice. As I argued in Knowledge, Calculation, Conflict, and Law, a review essay of Randy Barnett’s The Structure of Liberty, “It is … more costly to seek punishment than to seek restitution. For this and other reasons, restitution would probably become the predominant mode of justice in a free society.”

However, as I explain there and elaborate in Inalienability and Punishment and Punishment and Proportionality,

Nevertheless, acknowledging (and justifying) the theoretical legitimacy of punishment can be useful. For example, punishment (or a theory of punishment) may be utilized to reach a more objective determination of the proper amount of restitution, because a serious aggression leads to the right to inflict more severe punishment on the aggressor, which would thus tend to be traded for a higher average amount of ransom or restitution than for comparatively minor crimes. Especially offended victims will tend to bargain for a higher ransom; and richer aggressors will tend to be willing to pay more ransom to avoid the punishment the victim has a right to inflict, thereby solving the so-called “millionaire” problem faced under a pure restitution system (where a rich man may commit crimes with impunity, since he can simply pay easily-affordable restitution after committing the crime).

Moreover, even if punishment is banned (de facto or de jure) and is not an actual option–because of the possibility of mistakenly punishing innocents, say–an award of restitution can be based on the model of punishment. To-wit: a jury could be instructed to award the victim an amount of money it believes he could bargain for, given all the circumstances, if he could threaten to proportionately punish the aggressor. This can lead to more just and objective restitution awards than would result if the jury is simply told to award the amount of damages it “feels” is “fair.”

This latter point is significant because, as noted above, restitution based on the idea of restoring the victim is, as Cowen notes, often impossible, so meaningless; for this reason, those advocating restitution usually are vague about the proper standard (since there is no proper standard), or just “punt” it to the juries or courts, much like Congress does when it uses vague terms in statutes or Constitutions such as “accommodate” in the Americans with Disabilities Act or “privileges or immunities” in the Fourteenth Amendment.

 

Stephan Kinsella [email protected] www.StephanKinsella.com

 

 nskinsella:

 

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:

 

 

 nskinsella:

 

First, my argument is not limited to restitution. In fact, I think restitution is largely a chimera. It is not possible to make the victim of rape or murder “whole.”

 

 

Kinsella, your notion of “restitution” is unrealistic/utopian magical nonsense. A realistic conception of “restitution” does not make this mistake that all crimes can be undone completely as if they had never happened. You set up a straw man.

 

 

Restitution is quite commonly held up as the ideal, and is stated to be “making the victim whole” or “putting him in the position that he was before the crime.” I agree that it is unrealistic and utopian. In fact, it is impossible, since crimes cannot be undone.

If you can give a coherent, realistic, justifiable explanation of what restitution short of this is, please share it.

 

 

Don’t be coy. We both know you’re familiar with realistic restitution.

 

 nskinsella:
But as it is, restitution is just sum of money paid to the victim or his estate. If the sum of money were sufficient to make him whole, I’d agree this would be just.

 

Ah, but see… This is why you make such a big deal of your flawed utopian conception of restitution. You use it as the standard by which to judge realistic restitution as inadequate and arbitrary. Bad argument.

 

 nskinsella:
But as it cannot, then the award of money is utterly arbitrary and without any standards whatsoever. There are simply no boundaries to it. It’s just “some amount of money”. Fine; but why call this “restitution” then; and why assume that “paying some sum of money” is all that the victim is entitled to?

 

Your retribution theory has no non-arbitrary standard, so what’s your point? Come on, Stephan, this argument is disingenuous. Of course there are boundaries and non-arbitrary standards. You’re familiar with legal history. For stolen, lost and damaged goods there are prevailing market prices to refer to, for instance. there will be disagreement over the exact amount that is justified in some cases but broad agreement over acceptable ranges tend to develop. Sure, some things are hard to put a monetary reward to, like a person’s life. But your retribution standard suffers from the same difficulties and adds more, even violates the legal principle that someone should not judge his own case.

As for the meaning of restitution, it includes a monetary settlement. Drop the tendentious scare quotes.

Restitution
Restitution Res`ti*tu”tion (r?s`t?*t?”sh?n), n. [F.
restitution, L. restitutio. See Restitute, v.]
1. The act of restoring anything to its rightful owner, or of
making good, or of giving an equivalent for any loss,
damage, or injury; indemnification.
[1913 Webster]

2. That which is offered or given in return for what has been
lost, injured, or destroved; compensation.
[1913 Webster]

restitution
n 1: a sum of money paid in compensation for loss or injury [syn:
damages, amends, indemnity, indemnification, redress]
2: the act of restoring something to its original state
3: getting something back again

There is nothing strange about any of these, nothing a lawyer like you should be unfamiliar with; it just needs to be understood realistically and in light of  commonsense.

 

 nskinsella:

 

 

I have explained this in detail in the articles linked. It is simply because if the aggressor uses the victim’s body as a means, if he invades the borders of th victim’s body, if he uses the victim’s body or property despite the victim’s objection, he is endorsing the rule that doing this is permissible; and it is thus inconsistent of him to rely on an incompatible rule, which he must do, if he himself objects to being punished. In short, he is estopped from complaining.

 

 

This is just your estoppel theory, which I have raised objections to already, objections you’ve seen explained by me in far more detail elsewhere.

Yours in liberty,
Geoffrey Allan Plauché, Ph.D.
Adjunct Instructor, Buena Vista University
Webmaster / Articles Editor, LibertarianStandard.com
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 nskinsella:
This latter point is significant because, as noted above, restitution based on the idea of restoring the victim is, as Cowen notes, often impossible, so meaningless; for this reason, those advocating restitution usually are vague about the proper standard (since there is no proper standard), or just “punt” it to the juries or courts, much like Congress does when it uses vague terms in statutes or Constitutions such as “accommodate” in the Americans with Disabilities Act or “privileges or immunities” in the Fourteenth Amendment.

 

Sounds like you have a double standard here. You criticize realistic restitution from the standpoint of a false utopian restitution and then criticize restitution theory for not having some apriori standard that you seem to think should provide an exhaustive table of objective monetary rewards. But then you proceed to develop a theory of retribution that includes no such standard either.

 

 wilderness:
Moreover, even if punishment is banned (de facto or de jure) and is not an actual option–because of the possibility of mistakenly punishing innocents, say–an award of restitution can be based on the model of punishment. To-wit: a jury could be instructed to award the victim an amount of money it believes he could bargain for, given all the circumstances, if he could threaten to proportionately punish the aggressor. This can lead to more just and objective restitution awards than would result if the jury is simply told to award the amount of damages it “feels” is “fair.”

 

I fail to see how this added step of roleplaying is either useful or necessary. How does it make determining proper monteary settlemen easier than appeal to legal precedent and commonsense analysis of the full context of the case (including the relative wealth of criminal and victim)?

 

 wilderness:
Nevertheless, acknowledging (and justifying) the theoretical legitimacy of punishment can be useful. For example, punishment (or a theory of punishment) may be utilized to reach a more objective determination of the proper amount of restitution, because a serious aggression leads to the right to inflict more severe punishment on the aggressor, which would thus tend to be traded for a higher average amount of ransom or restitution than for comparatively minor crimes. Especially offended victims will tend to bargain for a higher ransom; and richer aggressors will tend to be willing to pay more ransom to avoid the punishment the victim has a right to inflict, thereby solving the so-called “millionaire” problem faced under a pure restitution system (where a rich man may commit crimes with impunity, since he can simply pay easily-affordable restitution after committing the crime).

 

There are other ways to solve the “millionaire” problem, such as patronage and the right to sell your right to restitution. There is also the use of criminal law, to ostracize serious standing threats and repeat offenders. Your analysis above also neglects the possibility that this bargaining process, which takes place within a coercive framework, could result in disproportionate monetary settlements.

here,

 

wilderness replied on Thu, May 21 2009 4:48 PM

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:

 

 

 wilderness:

 

Yeah, without retribution this is as far as I could get in my own thinking.  It would be a frightening world:

 

 

 wilderness:

 

Now say this criminal lives next door.  I would not want to live next to somebody or deal with somebody that murdered and tends to become an animal.   They are in plain sight.  So if they don’t leave, then I might have too or else the property line might turn into the North-South Korea border region.  I wouldn’t sleep well otherwise.  So if they force me to move cause I know they killed somebody, but nothing can be done about it cause it’s no longer a self-defense situation makes living uneasy there anymore so yes, I would move and feel that person forced me to move due to the threat I see.

 

 

 

 

I think you’re conflating retributive punishment with restraint. The purpose of retributive punishment is vengeance, to inflict harm and suffering on the criminal. What you’re looking for above is a justification for restraining a standing threat, such as by means of ostracism.

 

 

So ostracism, as Giles said – eviction from the community.  I see the difference now between retribution and restraining a threat.  I was wondering how far retribution could go without actually killing the person, but since they are still alive I still find them a threat in the community.  Eviction would take care of this, but wouldn’t this be considered off-loading a criminal onto potential other communities?  Is this simple a consideration of potential at this point?  Cause I understand the argument against potential is anything is potential so it’s not really an argument, but we do know this particular person in question is a criminal so not really a potential anymore.

wombatron, that article you linked me, does it discuss this?

“Do not put out the fire of the spirit.” 1The 5:19
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nskinsella replied on Thu, May 21 2009 4:49 PM

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:

 

 

 nskinsella:

 

First, my argument is not limited to restitution. In fact, I think restitution is largely a chimera. It is not possible to make the victim of rape or murder “whole.”

 

 

Kinsella, your notion of “restitution” is unrealistic/utopian magical nonsense. A realistic conception of “restitution” does not make this mistake that all crimes can be undone completely as if they had never happened. You set up a straw man.

 

 

Restitution is quite commonly held up as the ideal, and is stated to be “making the victim whole” or “putting him in the position that he was before the crime.” I agree that it is unrealistic and utopian. In fact, it is impossible, since crimes cannot be undone.

If you can give a coherent, realistic, justifiable explanation of what restitution short of this is, please share it. But as it is, restitution is just sum of money paid to the victim or his estate. If the sum of money were sufficient to make him whole, I’d agree this would be just. But as it cannot, then the award of money is utterly arbitrary and without any standards whatsoever. There are simply no boundaries to it. It’s just “some amount of money”. Fine; but why call this “restitution” then; and why assume that “paying some sum of money” is all that the victim is entitled to?

 

 

 

 nskinsella:
I believe retribution is primary.

 

Why?

 

 

 

I have explained this in detail in the articles linked. It is simply because if the aggressor uses the victim’s body as a means, if he invades the borders of th victim’s body, if he uses the victim’s body or property despite the victim’s objection, he is endorsing the rule that doing this is permissible; and it is thus inconsistent of him to rely on an incompatible rule, which he must do, if he himself objects to being punished. In short, he is estopped from complaining. Because he is estopped from objecting, the victim may proceed since he is not getting any objection–the inabiltiy of the aggressor to coherently object is what satisfies the victim and the relevant civilized, justification-seeking community that the victim’s use of responsive force based on the same maxim that the aggressor himself has promulgated, is justified.

It really does not matter if it does not satisfy the aggressor, or the rest of the uncivilized outlaws–or if it does not satisfy you. It is the victim who seeks to act, and it is the civilized community to whom he seeks to demonstrate that his actions are indeed not aggression but warranted. It is my view that reflecting on the aspects of the aggressor-victim relationship as noted above will as a matter of fact satisfy justice-seeking libertarians, and that is all that one can ask of any theory–they cannot be self-enforcing, after all, and failure to persuade someone is not an indicia of falsity.

Stephan Kinsella [email protected] www.StephanKinsella.com

nskinsella replied on Thu, May 21 2009 4:56 PM

 

 wilderness:

 

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:

 

 

 wilderness:

 

Yeah, without retribution this is as far as I could get in my own thinking.  It would be a frightening world:

 

 

 wilderness:

 

Now say this criminal lives next door.  I would not want to live next to somebody or deal with somebody that murdered and tends to become an animal.   They are in plain sight.  So if they don’t leave, then I might have too or else the property line might turn into the North-South Korea border region.  I wouldn’t sleep well otherwise.  So if they force me to move cause I know they killed somebody, but nothing can be done about it cause it’s no longer a self-defense situation makes living uneasy there anymore so yes, I would move and feel that person forced me to move due to the threat I see.

 

 

 

 

I think you’re conflating retributive punishment with restraint. The purpose of retributive punishment is vengeance, to inflict harm and suffering on the criminal. What you’re looking for above is a justification for restraining a standing threat, such as by means of ostracism.

 

 

So ostracism, as Giles said – eviction from the community.  I see the difference now between retribution and restraining a threat.  I was wondering how far retribution could go without actually killing the person, but since they are still alive I still find them a threat in the community.  Eviction would take care of this.  Thanks.

 

 

Incidentally, I go into all this in detail here: Fraud, Restitution, and Retaliation: The Libertarian Approach

 

in particular see this part:

Finally, let me note that just because the right to forcefully respond, including use of force for not only defensive or restitutive purposes, but also for retaliation or retribution, does not mean that we would expect a libertarian society to actually employ punishment often in practice. As I argued in Knowledge, Calculation, Conflict, and Law, a review essay of Randy Barnett’s The Structure of Liberty, “It is … more costly to seek punishment than to seek restitution. For this and other reasons, restitution would probably become the predominant mode of justice in a free society.”

However, as I explain there and elaborate in Inalienability and Punishment and Punishment and Proportionality,

Nevertheless, acknowledging (and justifying) the theoretical legitimacy of punishment can be useful. For example, punishment (or a theory of punishment) may be utilized to reach a more objective determination of the proper amount of restitution, because a serious aggression leads to the right to inflict more severe punishment on the aggressor, which would thus tend to be traded for a higher average amount of ransom or restitution than for comparatively minor crimes. Especially offended victims will tend to bargain for a higher ransom; and richer aggressors will tend to be willing to pay more ransom to avoid the punishment the victim has a right to inflict, thereby solving the so-called “millionaire” problem faced under a pure restitution system (where a rich man may commit crimes with impunity, since he can simply pay easily-affordable restitution after committing the crime).

Moreover, even if punishment is banned (de facto or de jure) and is not an actual option–because of the possibility of mistakenly punishing innocents, say–an award of restitution can be based on the model of punishment. To-wit: a jury could be instructed to award the victim an amount of money it believes he could bargain for, given all the circumstances, if he could threaten to proportionately punish the aggressor. This can lead to more just and objective restitution awards than would result if the jury is simply told to award the amount of damages it “feels” is “fair.”

This latter point is significant because, as noted above, restitution based on the idea of restoring the victim is, as Cowen notes, often impossible, so meaningless; for this reason, those advocating restitution usually are vague about the proper standard (since there is no proper standard), or just “punt” it to the juries or courts, much like Congress does when it uses vague terms in statutes or Constitutions such as “accommodate” in the Americans with Disabilities Act or “privileges or immunities” in the Fourteenth Amendment.

 

 nskinsella:

 

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:

 

 

 nskinsella:

 

First, my argument is not limited to restitution. In fact, I think restitution is largely a chimera. It is not possible to make the victim of rape or murder “whole.”

 

 

Kinsella, your notion of “restitution” is unrealistic/utopian magical nonsense. A realistic conception of “restitution” does not make this mistake that all crimes can be undone completely as if they had never happened. You set up a straw man.

 

 

Restitution is quite commonly held up as the ideal, and is stated to be “making the victim whole” or “putting him in the position that he was before the crime.” I agree that it is unrealistic and utopian. In fact, it is impossible, since crimes cannot be undone.

If you can give a coherent, realistic, justifiable explanation of what restitution short of this is, please share it.

 

 

Don’t be coy. We both know you’re familiar with realistic restitution.

 

 nskinsella:
But as it is, restitution is just sum of money paid to the victim or his estate. If the sum of money were sufficient to make him whole, I’d agree this would be just.

 

Ah, but see… This is why you make such a big deal of your flawed utopian conception of restitution. You use it as the standard by which to judge realistic restitution as inadequate and arbitrary. Bad argument.

 

 nskinsella:
But as it cannot, then the award of money is utterly arbitrary and without any standards whatsoever. There are simply no boundaries to it. It’s just “some amount of money”. Fine; but why call this “restitution” then; and why assume that “paying some sum of money” is all that the victim is entitled to?

 

Your retribution theory has no non-arbitrary standard, so what’s your point? Come on, Stephan, this argument is disingenuous. Of course there are boundaries and non-arbitrary standards. You’re familiar with legal history. For stolen, lost and damaged goods there are prevailing market prices to refer to, for instance. there will be disagreement over the exact amount that is justified in some cases but broad agreement over acceptable ranges tend to develop. Sure, some things are hard to put a monetary reward to, like a person’s life. But your retribution standard suffers from the same difficulties and adds more, even violates the legal principle that someone should not judge his own case.

As for the meaning of restitution, it includes a monetary settlement. Drop the tendentious scare quotes.

Restitution
Restitution Res`ti*tu”tion (r?s`t?*t?”sh?n), n. [F.
restitution, L. restitutio. See Restitute, v.]
1. The act of restoring anything to its rightful owner, or of
making good, or of giving an equivalent for any loss,
damage, or injury; indemnification.
[1913 Webster]

2. That which is offered or given in return for what has been
lost, injured, or destroved; compensation.
[1913 Webster]

restitution
n 1: a sum of money paid in compensation for loss or injury [syn:
damages, amends, indemnity, indemnification, redress]
2: the act of restoring something to its original state
3: getting something back again

There is nothing strange about any of these, nothing a lawyer like you should be unfamiliar with; it just needs to be understood realistically and in light of  commonsense.

 

 nskinsella:

 

 

I have explained this in detail in the articles linked. It is simply because if the aggressor uses the victim’s body as a means, if he invades the borders of th victim’s body, if he uses the victim’s body or property despite the victim’s objection, he is endorsing the rule that doing this is permissible; and it is thus inconsistent of him to rely on an incompatible rule, which he must do, if he himself objects to being punished. In short, he is estopped from complaining.

 

 

This is just your estoppel theory, which I have raised objections to already, objections you’ve seen explained by me in far more detail elsewhere.

wilderness replied on Thu, May 21 2009 5:19 PM

 

 nskinsella:

 

Incidentally, I go into all this in detail here: Fraud, Restitution, and Retaliation: The Libertarian Approach

 

 

I put this post of yours as a favorite to come back to this and the other links you gave for further reading.  I think the whole hazy problem with any of these efforts for justice is because justice sees the blood and sees the misery and thus has the impact of the worse aspects of society banging on its doors – criminals.

Thanks.  I’m not completely sure on how to handle all these situations.  I have my current way of doing things, but I’m always trying to test what I know in order to be open to what could possibly be better.

 

 nskinsella:
This latter point is significant because, as noted above, restitution based on the idea of restoring the victim is, as Cowen notes, often impossible, so meaningless; for this reason, those advocating restitution usually are vague about the proper standard (since there is no proper standard), or just “punt” it to the juries or courts, much like Congress does when it uses vague terms in statutes or Constitutions such as “accommodate” in the Americans with Disabilities Act or “privileges or immunities” in the Fourteenth Amendment.

 

Sounds like you have a double standard here. You criticize realistic restitution from the standpoint of a false utopian restitution and then criticize restitution theory for not having some apriori standard that you seem to think should provide an exhaustive table of objective monetary rewards. But then you proceed to develop a theory of retribution that includes no such standard either.

 

 wilderness:
Moreover, even if punishment is banned (de facto or de jure) and is not an actual option–because of the possibility of mistakenly punishing innocents, say–an award of restitution can be based on the model of punishment. To-wit: a jury could be instructed to award the victim an amount of money it believes he could bargain for, given all the circumstances, if he could threaten to proportionately punish the aggressor. This can lead to more just and objective restitution awards than would result if the jury is simply told to award the amount of damages it “feels” is “fair.”

 

I fail to see how this added step of roleplaying is either useful or necessary. How does it make determining proper monteary settlemen easier than appeal to legal precedent and commonsense analysis of the full context of the case (including the relative wealth of criminal and victim)?

 

 wilderness:
Nevertheless, acknowledging (and justifying) the theoretical legitimacy of punishment can be useful. For example, punishment (or a theory of punishment) may be utilized to reach a more objective determination of the proper amount of restitution, because a serious aggression leads to the right to inflict more severe punishment on the aggressor, which would thus tend to be traded for a higher average amount of ransom or restitution than for comparatively minor crimes. Especially offended victims will tend to bargain for a higher ransom; and richer aggressors will tend to be willing to pay more ransom to avoid the punishment the victim has a right to inflict, thereby solving the so-called “millionaire” problem faced under a pure restitution system (where a rich man may commit crimes with impunity, since he can simply pay easily-affordable restitution after committing the crime).

 

There are other ways to solve the “millionaire” problem, such as patronage and the right to sell your right to restitution. There is also the use of criminal law, to ostracize serious standing threats and repeat offenders. Your analysis above also neglects the possibility that this bargaining process, which takes place within a coercive framework, could result in disproportionate monetary settlements.

here

Brainpolice replied on Fri, May 22 2009 9:04 AM

 

1) It does not follow from the fact that someone endorses aggression for a given circumstance that he necessarily endorses by that very action aggression in any and all circumstances or the circumstances of the victims choosing. If he’s got a democratic majoritarian theory of justice, then that implies the endorsement of aggression under a certain set of circumstances but not in others, thus allowing the aggressor to complain coherently if wrongly under the latter set of circumstances. Sure, we don’t think such a theory is valid, but estoppel itself does not show this. You’ll no doubt say that AE does show this, but as you know I disagree. At any rate, estoppel is much more limited in what it can establish than is usually let on.

 

In fact, such a line of argument is little more than a rhetoric trick. It purposefully ignores any argument I may present and ends up being a nice driveby “I win” sort of thing. “You did bad thing X, therefore you cannot have a rational argument against anyone in the world doing bad thing X to you”. This quickly devolves into a sea of hypocrisy and regress. Apparently we don’t even have to provide a positive case for using violence on people as “punishment”, we can simply make a sophisticated “he did it” argument. But the fact that “he did it” is not really relevant to whether or not it is justified for you to do it in turn. The effect of this argument is actually to avoid having to rationally justify punishment by merely shifting all burden of proof to the punished and then trying to claim that the punished cannot even meet such a burden of proof because “they did it”.

I have no problem calling this argument sophistry – for it takes the form of a carte blanch justification in the absence of an actual justification by ruling out the possibility of rationally argueing with the would-be-justifier in the first place. The justification is simply presupposed as if it was “self-evident” – which means that no formal justification as actually given. The appeal to the offender thus becomes a distraction from the fact that the proponent of punishment has not provided a justification for punishment. These purely “negative proofs” of the Hoppean form aren’t really proofs at all, they take the form of drive-by argument winners. But when one thinks deeply about it, it isn’t even a legitimate argument. It constitutes “proof by ruling out the possibility of you argueing against me in the first place, so I can ignore your arguments completely and just declare that you implicitly justify my position”. Hence, the wielder of such arguments doesn’t even have to really prove anything.

Their correctness is presupposed!

 

 

 nskinsella:
Yes, Plauche has already disproved this. Just see past archives. Move along, nothing to see here.

 

Well, you know my arguments already. Please don’t act as if you are totally unfamiliar with them.

 

 nskinsella:
I agree with you that there are differences, but disagree that this partial-pacifism is “standard libertarian fare.” Rothbard was for punishment, for example. Proportional punishment is very standard libertarian — though I’ll grant you a sizeable chunk of libertarians favor restitution (as do I), and many of these oppose retribution (though usually on consequentialist grounds).

 

It’s not “partial-pacifism.” That label doesn’t even pass the smell test. Framing the debate in such a way, with loaded labels, is a good rhetorical tool for “winning” an argument in the eyes of others, but it doesn’t really suffice AS an argument.

The standard libertarian fare I was referring to was not the restitution-only position, but the position that self-defense is justified in a libertarian legal system. That said, as you note, there are plenty of restitution-only libertarians.  Moreover, that Rothbard endorsed retributive punishment does not mean it is legitimate.

 

 nskinsella:
Agreed. And if I punish my aggressor, you can’t punish me back, if you don’t believe in punishment. All you can do is favor his right to get “restitution” from me.

 

I can also favor some methods of restraint (which some argue fall under what would be criminal law in a libertarian society), including for example ostracism.

 

 nskinsella:
But if I proportionately punish him, then presumably the restitution I owe him cancels what he owes me–so we are back to the retributionist position which holds punishment to be primary, but it can be traded off against restitution.

 

That such ad hoc, illegal choices could be made in a restitution-only legal system does not justify retribution, mean restitution is arbitrary, or mean that retribution should be enshrined formally in a libertarian legall system. Yes, a victim could trade off the restitution he is owed for the initial crime done him against the restitution he would owe for committing a retaliatory crime. Something similar could happen in a retributive punishment system when an original victim desires a punishment more severe than the legal system settles upon as proportional. Nothing really unique about restitution-only there. Moreover, it does not follow, as you claim, that “we are back to a retributionist position which holds punishment to be primary.”

 

 nskinsella:

 

Ah, yes, this reminds me of those fumbling days in law school, when I dimly glimpsed the truths of estoppel … until finally one day all became clear.

Maybe–just maybe–one day, you can understand me too, in the sense Einstein meant. 😉

 

 

So humble. I think by your acceptance of your own theory you are estopped from complaining when you think others are acting pretentious or arrogant, even if they have independent reasons for why they shouldn’t act like that anyway. ;o)

 

Stephen replied on Thu, May 21 2009 7:05 PM

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:

 

 

 Stephen Forde:

 

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:

 

How do you justify the punisher giving the criminal his “just deserts” in the first place?

 

 

He has it coming.

 

 

That’s not an argument. Why does he have it coming? What justifies it?

 

 

Well, first the question of whether or not someone has a right to do something is separate from whether it is good to do. Kinsella’s argument proves that anyone has a right to punish an aggressor proportionately. If he finds it good and he has the right, that’s all the justification that is necessary.

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:

 

 

 Stephen Forde:

 

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:
As far as I’m concerned, the burden of proof lies with the person who would use violence period.

 

So, in other words, your doctrine has no teeth, i.e. it’s unenforceable.

 

 

Where do you get this mistaken idea? You should have finished reading my post before writing this sentence.

 

 

 

I guess I made a mistake here. I see how you would still demand restitution from a punisher.

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:

 

 

 Stephen Forde:

 

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:
I don’t think anyone here, barring pacifists (and they would be wrong, sorry), would dispute that self-defense is justified (legally speaking).

 

Why would pacifists be wrong? What’s wrong with pacifism anyway?

 

 

There are many good arguments against complete pacificism (as opposed to strategic use of non-violent resistance). But even if someone perfers not to use violence at all as a matter of moral principle, I have yet to see a good argument from pacifists against the legal legitimacy of using violence in self-defense (a right they could opt not to exercise). If you know of any that you find persuasive, let me know. But given your views on retributive punishment, I find this unlikely, so your objection is rather odd.

 

 

Well, that didn’t really answer the question. I think pacifist arguments are about as good as yours. I find your simultaneous disapproval of punishment and approval of self-defense odd.

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:

 

 

 Stephen Forde:

 

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:
But I have yet to see a theory that succeeds in justifying retributive punishment. Estoppel and argumentation ethics do not.

 

Based on what?

 

 

What do you mean “based on what?”? What are you refering to? There have been ample reasons given in this thread as to why estoppel does not succeed in justifying punishment. The same apply to AE.

 

 

 

What is the basis of the claim that estoppel and AE fail to justify punishment and property rights? What are the reasons you are refering to?

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 Stephen Forde:
Well, first the question of whether or not someone has a right to do something is separate from whether it is good to do. Kinsella’s argument proves that anyone has a right to punish an aggressor proportionately. If he finds it good and he has the right, that’s all the justification that is necessary.

 

I don’t think Kinsella’s argument proves any such thing, and both myself and others have given reasons why. See our earlier posts.

 

 Stephen Forde:
Well, that didn’t really answer the question. I think pacifist arguments are about as good as yours. I find your simultaneous disapproval of punishment and approval of self-defense odd.

 

Nothing odd about it at all. My position on rights and self-defense in this sense is standard libertarian fare. There are huge obvious differences between using what violence is necessary in self-defense to put an end to rights-violations, on the one hand, and going beyond this to exacting vengance in the form of retributive punishment, on the other. Violence is prima facie bad/wrong, and you need to provide reasons for why it might be justified in some circumstances. Defending against rights violations, within the principle of proportionality, is a no-brainer. You don’t have an obligation to passively let someone steal from, beat, maim or kill you. A pacifist disagrees with this, sure. But pretty much by definition a pacifist can’t prevent you from using violence in self-defense; he has no basis for making it illegal, for making pacificism legitimately enforceable.

 

 Stephen Forde:
What is the basis of the claim that estoppel and AE fail to justify punishment and property rights? What are the reasons you are refering to?

 

See previous posts in this thread. I was mainly refering to punishment, although I think AE is a flawed theory generally. To summarize, they make no positive argument for punishment, they make stronger claims than they are warranted based on the premises and the structure of their arguments, and they ignore the prior moral-legal obligations of the moral agent/victim.

Yours in liberty,
Geoffrey Allan Plauché, Ph.D.
Adjunct Instructor, Buena Vista University
Webmaster, LibertarianStandard.com
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nskinsella replied on Thu, May 21 2009 10:03 PM

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:

 

 

 Stephen Forde:
Well, first the question of whether or not someone has a right to do something is separate from whether it is good to do. Kinsella’s argument proves that anyone has a right to punish an aggressor proportionately. If he finds it good and he has the right, that’s all the justification that is necessary.

 

I don’t think Kinsella’s argument proves any such thing, and both myself and others have given reasons why. See our earlier posts.

 

 

Yes, Plauche has already disproved this. Just see past archives. Move along, nothing to see here.

 

 

 

 Stephen Forde:
Well, that didn’t really answer the question. I think pacifist arguments are about as good as yours. I find your simultaneous disapproval of punishment and approval of self-defense odd.

 

Nothing odd about it at all. My position on rights and self-defense in this sense is standard libertarian fare. There are huge obvious differences between using what violence is necessary in self-defense to put an end to rights-violations, on the one hand, and going beyond this to exacting vengance in the form of retributive punishment, on the other.

 

 

I agree with you that there are differences, but disagree that this partial-pacifism is “standard libertarian fare.” Rothbard was for punishment, for example. Proportional punishment is very standard libertarian — though I’ll grant you a sizeable chunk of libertarians favor restitution (as do I), and many of these oppose retribution (though usually on consequentialist grounds).

 

 

Violence is prima facie bad/wrong, and you need to provide reasons for why it might be justified in some circumstances. Defending against rights violations, within the principle of proportionality, is a no-brainer. You don’t have an obligation to passively let someone steal from, beat, maim or kill you. A pacifist disagrees with this, sure. But pretty much by definition a pacifist can’t prevent you from using violence in self-defense; he has no basis for making it illegal, for making pacificism legitimately enforceable.

 

 

Agreed. And if I punish my aggressor, you can’t punish me back, if you don’t believe in punishment. All you can do is favor his right to get “restitution” from me. But if I proportionately punish him, then presumably the restitution I owe him cancels what he owes me–so we are back to the retributionist position which holds punishment to be primary, but it can be traded off against restitution.

You know, Plauche, I was reading Hans Ohanian’s Einstein’s Mistakes last night–as is my wont–and on p. 206 I came across a quote from a letter of Einstein’s when he was groping for his solution to general relativity, with apparent successes alternating with failures, until he finally got it right. As Ohanian writes,

 

 

For Einstein, the lengthy quest for his revolutionary theory of general relativity wast he best of times and the worst of times. As he described it later, “The years of searching in the dark for a truth that one feels but cannot express, the intense desire and the alternations of confidence and misgivings until one breaks through to clarity and undertanding, are known only to him who has himself experienced them.”

 

 

Ah, yes, this reminds me of those fumbling days in law school, when I dimly glimpsed the truths of estoppel … until finally one day all became clear.

Maybe–just maybe–one day, you can understand me too, in the sense Einstein meant. 😉

Stephan Kinsella [email protected] www.StephanKinsella.com

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nskinsella replied on Thu, May 21 2009 10:08 PM

 

 Stephen Forde:

 

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:
As far as I’m concerned, the burden of proof lies with the person who would use violence period.

 

So, in other words, your doctrine has no teeth, i.e. it’s unenforceable.

 

 

 

I think I disagree with this. I think even a non-retributist theory is enforceable. Self-defense and the right to forcefully extra restitution are meaningful, as are various social ostracism measures. Probably this is all that’s needed, realistically. It’s just that (a) this means “restitution” is arbitrary, not anchored in anything; (b) there is no reason to deny the right to punish; (c) occasional ad hoc retribution *will* occur, and the system will either have to condone or punish it. Of course it will condone it, so in effect leading to a justification of punishment at least in some circumstances.

Stephan Kinsella [email protected] www.StephanKinsella.com

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Stephen replied on Thu, May 21 2009 10:15 PM

 

 nskinsella:

 

 

 Stephen Forde:

 

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:
As far as I’m concerned, the burden of proof lies with the person who would use violence period.

 

So, in other words, your doctrine has no teeth, i.e. it’s unenforceable.

 

 

 

I think I disagree with this. I think even a non-retributist theory is enforceable. Self-defense and the right to forcefully extra restitution are meaningful, as are various social ostracism measures. Probably this is all that’s needed, realistically. It’s just that (a) this means “restitution” is arbitrary, not anchored in anything; (b) there is no reason to deny the right to punish; (c) occasional ad hoc retribution *will* occur, and the system will either have to condone or punish it. Of course it will condone it, so in effect leading to a justification of punishment at least in some circumstances.

 

 

I know I made a mistake, which I acknowledge 3 posts back.

 

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 nskinsella:
It either makes someone whole, restores them, or it doesn’t. It doesn’t, since it’s not possible. If it doesn’t do this, I’m not sure what it is.

 

You’re continuing to insist on your false utopian conception of restitution. I don’t accept it. It seems to be a sticking point for you in defending your theory and criticizig mine.

 

 nskinsella:
IN any event, it’s not primary, as I explain below.

 

You mean your estoppel theory that I already objected to and you haven’t defended? I don’t agree that an arbitrary right to punishment from which all of justice flows is primary. You can’t deduce all of libertarian justice from such an alleged right.

 

 nskinsella:
if it’s not based on some coherent standard like the right to proportional punishmet, it’s purely arbitrary and has little to do with justice, IMO.

 

This supposed standard of yours is no more coherent, no less arbitrary, than any restitution standard. It just adds an extra level of complexity, and yes, even a level of arbitrariness. You have no basis for what counts as a proportional punishment that is more coherent, less arbitrary, than any restitution standard. As you know, from previous debates on this subject, simply using the criminal act of the aggressor as the basis does not work.  The same thing applied in retaliation to the aggressor will not necessarily cause equivalent harm, suffering, costs, etc. And at any rate, this raises the question of whether such retributive punishment is justified in the first place. But this aside, you then have the problem of translating this extra step that isn’t present in restitution theories into a monetary settlement that is not arbitrary. Your supposed solution to effect this transmogrification is the bargaining negotiation (which you’ve admitted doesn’t even have to actually take place; it can merely be hypothetical (sounds a bit like social contract theory’s implicit/hypothetical consent by a “reasonable” man)). So your supposedly non-arbitrary standard is simply the whim of the victim (or of the jurors/judge) and what he can extract from the criminal with the threat of some (at least somewhat) arbitrary retributive punishment hanging over his head. Contrast this with the standards of a restitution theory (see below).

 

 nskinsella:
In proportional punishment, if we are punishing a minor crime, we know that capital punishment is too severe. So there are limits, that constrain where we place the line in the gray zone.

 

This is true, but you have to admit that there is no exact standard for hitting upon the right or perfectly proportional and appropriate punishment. People are different. Given things are going to affect them differently. Assuming punishment is seen as legitimate, you can expect individuals, judges, juries, particularly through the evolution of legal precedent over time, to tend to settle on general ranges that are perceived to be acceptable for given crimes. This is no more precise than settling on monetary settlements. See? But you’ve added the extra steps of determining a proportional punishment and translating that into a monetary settlement, with all the complications that go along with that, including the problem of having an unequal coercive bargaining situation biasing the outcome. Why should just monetary settlements be based on such a bargaining situation?

 

 nskinsella:
for mundane theft of a homogenous owned object, it might

 

Well, at least you admit that your arguments don’t work against crimes involving economic goods. That gives up quite a lot of ground right there. But as I pointed out above, you’ve already given up the game by admitting (if unintentionally) that hitting upon a precisely proportional and appropriate punishmeent is not an exact (apriori) science.

 

 nskinsella:
I think the standard is: however much money the victim can–or could, if punishment is not literally permitted–bargain away with *this aggresor* his right to punish.

 

Why? This strikes me as very arbitrary, arguably more so in the hypothetical scenario than in the actual scenario since you have an individual or group of individuals simply imagining what could be extracted from the criminal under threat of punishment (what the criminal would be willing to give up that at least meets the minimum the victim would be willing to accept, all within the bounds of some non-exact proportionality standard).

 

 nskinsella:
We are left with the rihgt to proportionally retaliate as the appropriate way to gauge how much money damages to award. Since you reject this, and since the other possible standards are inappropriate–“making the victim whole” or “what you would have agreed to before the crime”–you are left with literally *no standards*, Geofff

 

You didn’t try very hard to articulate any others and refute them. Note that both your alternatives are straw men. Convenient.

 

 nskinsella:
so unless you can articulate one, instead of just punting it to the courts as if their arbitrary, standardless decisions amount to justice–then you are off base in thinking restitution can be primary.

 

Oh, come now. For a libertarian who favors a competitive, free market legal system, you display an unnusual lack of confidence in private courts. Must your Libertarian Law Code be handed down from on high by someone who has deduced it entirely from apodictic axioms? But wait, you’ve aleady as much as admitted that this cannot be the case even with proportional punishment. You’ll need to rely upon the arbitrary, standardless decisions of the courts to determine what the victim and aggressor would agree upon in a hypothetical, unequal, coercive bargaining scenario. This is no real, objective standard. In fact, it’s more problematic than alternatives. What you’ll probably end up with in practice is just a mix of decisions based on arbitrary criteria and standard restitution criteria.

Also, I never claimed that restitution is primary. I’ve pointed this out before, elsewhere.

 

 nskinsella:
the right to punish, which must logically therefore be primary.

 

But nor is the right to punish primary.

 

 nskinsella:

 

 

 

Sure, some things are hard to put a monetary reward to, like a person’s life. But your retribution standard suffers from the same difficulties and adds more, even violates the legal principle that someone should not judge his own case.

 

 

I completely disagree, for the reasons given above, and as adumbrated at length in my JLS Estoppel piece.

 

 

In this very post you’ve as much as admitted that your retribution standard suffers from the same difficulties. See above where I’ve pointed this out. And in  the case of an actual bargaining scenario, you are to a significant degree making the victim the judge in his own case.

 

 nskinsella:
It’s not tendentious, it’s sincerely my view, since I don’t think idealized, real restitution is possible.

 

Well, it’s sincerely my view that your conception of restitution is unrealistic and therefore not real. Of course, it’s impossible. It realies upon a stubbornly literal and simultaneously idealized interpretation of the various definitions of the term, interpretations that violate common sense and common uses of metaphor. You refuse to acknoledge my dissent from your conception and persist in basing much of your defense of your position and criticism of mine on your conception. Where can we go from here?

 

 nskinsella:
There is NO “reward” to the victim of murder, Geoff. There is no real restitution possible.

 

Sure, there is tragedy in life, even great tregedy. But there is no “reward” for the victim of murder in the form of punishment of the criminal either. The victim is dead, he gets nothing at all out of it. Your theory solves nothing in this regard. To bemoan these facts and criticize a theory of justice for not overcoming reality is similar to socialists bemoaning the fact that people have to produce, save and invest in order to survive and flourish and criticizing capitalism for not immediately overcoming these “flaws” and eliminating poverty and satisfying all wants.

 

 nskinsella:
And you are wrong to think that there are no boundaries on proportional punishment. There are. Given the constraint that it’s legitimate to punish an aggressor in a manner proportionate to his aggression, reasonable people can identify upper and lower boundaries, and work to draw a line between them. There are standards and bondaries.

 

First of all, I never claimed (or did not mean to claim) that there are NO boundaries on proportional punishment. Sure, what you say here is correct; as I pointed out above, you admitted as much earlier in your post. But notice that what you have here is no apriori or exact standard. It’s vague, general, dependent upon the development of legal precedent based upon countless decisions by judges and juries and the communities at large for what specification is possible in the real world. This is no better, is arguably worse, than the standard criteria arrived at and used for restitution.

 

 nskinsella:
But there are NONE for your floating abstraction of “restitution” unanchored to any standard whatsoever.

 

This is complete and utter nonsense. I am truly surprised someone trained in law and familiar with legal history, including the history with which libertarians tend to be familiar and mainstreamers ignorant, would make such an absurd claim. You’ve admitted there are acceptable standards at least for economic goods. We can refer to prevailing market prices for stolen, damaged and lost property. But we can go beyond this. We can refer to past and recent earned incomes of victims as well as reasonable expectations for future or lost income had the crime not occured. We can determine to a reasonable approximation how much someone values their lost time. We can reference the prices that people tend to place on goods and services related to accidental dismemberment and death, such as in the form of insurance premiums and payments. These are not perfect analogs, sure. And sure nothing can restore a life, lost time or (at least for now) a lost limb as good as new. Nothing can completely undo the crime as if it had not really occured. To a large extent this is simply railing against reality for not fitting your utopian conception of justice, however. Why not have a conception of justice that fits what is possible in the real world? Some compensation can be acquired, and yes upper and lower limits on monetary settlements can be discovered that are no more arbitrary than your upper and lower limits on proportional punishment. And this can be done without recourse to your arbitrary standard and extra steps in the form of a bargaining negotiation based on a supposed right to punish.

As you note in another post, even in a legal system that does not endorse retributive punishment there may at times be instances of ad hoc retributive punishment being carried out. This would by definition be illegal within that context, taking place outside the legal system and in violation of the law. A society could choose to passively condone this isolated behavior by not taking legal action or it could take legal action. That such illegal actions can be forgiven in some circumstances does not in and of itself justify them. That this can occur does not mean retributive punishment should be enshrined formally in a legal system. It most certainly does not mean or imply that realistic restitution is arbitrary.

 

 nskinsella:
I have explained this in detail in the articles linked. It is simply because if the aggressor uses the victim’s body as a means, if he invades the borders of th victim’s body, if he uses the victim’s body or property despite the victim’s objection, he is endorsing the rule that doing this is permissible; and it is thus inconsistent of him to rely on an incompatible rule, which he must do, if he himself objects to being punished. In short, he is estopped from complaining.

 

But this is (1) false and (2) inadequate for your purposes as I have argued in this thread and elsewhere.

1) It does not follow from the fact that someone endorses aggression for a given circumstance that he necessarily endorses by that very action aggression in any and all circumstances or the circumstances of the victims choosing. If he’s got a democratic majoritarian theory of justice, then that implies the endorsement of aggression under a certain set of circumstances but not in others, thus allowing the aggressor to complain coherently if wrongly under the latter set of circumstances. Sure, we don’t think such a theory is valid, but estoppel itself does not show this. You’ll no doubt say that AE does show this, but as you know I disagree. At any rate, estoppel is much more limited in what it can establish than is usually let on.

2) It doesn’t matter if he can’t coherently complain. This doesn’t justify, in and of itself, the victim punishing him. You are in essence basing all the criteria of justice on facts about the moral recipient (that he can’t coherently complain because of his actions) rather than the moral agent (what virtue requires of him). What a moral agent is justified in doing cannot be derived solely from what others do. Sadistic child abuse and killing does not by itself justify the same or equivalent in return. Being the victim of atavistic barbarism justifies doing what is necessary to end the rights-violation, but it does not by itself justify descending into atavistic barbarism as well in return. Yours is a theory of anything goes, no matter how sadistic or depraved, so long as it is within some in-exact approximation of proportion to what the other guy did first: hey, if our opponents act like inhuman monsters then we are justified in doing so as well, for no other reason than that they did so first. I don’t buy this moral-legal arbitrariness at all. The obligation to respect rights can only ultimately be grounded in the requirements of virtue (which of course take into account the actions of others but are not based solely on them). A right is a legitimately enforceable moral claim against a prior obligation not to threaten or use initiatory physical force. It can very well be a vice, even a legitimately prohibited one (as the vices involved in theft and murder are so prohibited), for me to do something to you about which you cannot coherently complain. A theory of virtue ethics and natural rights blocks estoppel without even having to deny it.

nskinsella replied on Fri, May 22 2009 9:47 AM

 

 Geoffrey Allan Plauche:

 

 

 nskinsella:
It either makes someone whole, restores them, or it doesn’t. It doesn’t, since it’s not possible. If it doesn’t do this, I’m not sure what it is.

 

You’re continuing to insist on your false utopian conception of restitution. I don’t accept it. It seems to be a sticking point for you in defending your theory and criticizig mine.

 

 nskinsella:
IN any event, it’s not primary, as I explain below.

 

You mean your estoppel theory that I already objected to and you haven’t defended? I don’t agree that an arbitrary right to punishment from which all of justice flows is primary. You can’t deduce all of libertarian justice from such an alleged right.

 

 nskinsella:
if it’s not based on some coherent standard like the right to proportional punishmet, it’s purely arbitrary and has little to do with justice, IMO.

 

This supposed standard of yours is no more coherent, no less arbitrary, than any restitution standard. It just adds an extra level of complexity, and yes, even a level of arbitrariness. You have no basis for what counts as a proportional punishment that is more coherent, less arbitrary, than any restitution standard. As you know, from previous debates on this subject, simply using the criminal act of the aggressor as the basis does not work.  The same thing applied in retaliation to the aggressor will not necessarily cause equivalent harm, suffering, costs, etc. And at any rate, this raises the question of whether such retributive punishment is justified in the first place. But this aside, you then have the problem of translating this extra step that isn’t present in restitution theories into a monetary settlement that is not arbitrary. Your supposed solution to effect this transmogrification is the bargaining negotiation (which you’ve admitted doesn’t even have to actually take place; it can merely be hypothetical (sounds a bit like social contract theory’s implicit/hypothetical consent by a “reasonable” man)). So your supposedly non-arbitrary standard is simply the whim of the victim (or of the jurors/judge) and what he can extract from the criminal with the threat of some (at least somewhat) arbitrary retributive punishment hanging over his head. Contrast this with the standards of a restitution theory (see below).

 

 nskinsella:
In proportional punishment, if we are punishing a minor crime, we know that capital punishment is too severe. So there are limits, that constrain where we place the line in the gray zone.

 

This is true, but you have to admit that there is no exact standard for hitting upon the right or perfectly proportional and appropriate punishment. People are different. Given things are going to affect them differently. Assuming punishment is seen as legitimate, you can expect individuals, judges, juries, particularly through the evolution of legal precedent over time, to tend to settle on general ranges that are perceived to be acceptable for given crimes. This is no more precise than settling on monetary settlements. See? But you’ve added the extra steps of determining a proportional punishment and translating that into a monetary settlement, with all the complications that go along with that, including the problem of having an unequal coercive bargaining situation biasing the outcome. Why should just monetary settlements be based on such a bargaining situation?

 

 

This is all nonsense. The notion of proportionate punishment is ancient and people do have a good idea of what it means. Maybe it boggles your mind, but in a free society you pick a libertarian jury and they will converge on a reasonable solution.

You have a different approach to me. Mine is very simple (as any approach to rights has to be, since rights have to be intuitive and easy to understand, otherwise they could not be rationally accepted by the bulk of society, which they must be to serve as practical guides to conflict-avoiding action). It simply asks: what am I entitled to do, if someone attacks me? And the answer, in abstract, is: you are entitled to do to the aggressor, “what he did to you”. Fleshing this out is the task of the justice system.

In my articles on this I have emphasized over and over that the libertarian always keeps his eye on the victim; that is who we favor and who we want to protect and defend. The victim has already been harmed by aggression; any legal rules we endorse as just must not aggravate him or penalize him further for being a victim.

Therefore, in my Punishment and Proportionality: The Estoppel Approach, for example (see section IV.C, “The Burden of Proof”), I argue that while the plaintiff-victim in court may have the burden of proof, once he proves that aggression did occur, then the burden of argumentation and theorizing itself switches to the defendant. As I wrote:

We have established so far a prima facie case for the right to proportionately punish an aggressor in response to acts of violence, actions which invade the borders of others’ bodies or legitimately acquired property.  Once this burden is carried, however, it is just to place the burden of proof on the aggressor to show why a proposed punishment of him is disproportionate or otherwise unjustified.  The justice of this point is again implied by the logic of estoppel.  The aggressor was not put in the position of justifying how much force he could use against the victim before he used such force; similarly, the victim should not be put in the position of justifying how much force is the appropriate level of retaliatory force to use against the aggressor before retaliating.

As pointed out above, because it is the aggressor who has put the victim into a situation where the victim has a limited variety and range of remedies, the aggressor is estopped from complaining if the victim uses a type of force against the aggressor that is different from the aggressor’s use of force.  The burden of proof and argument is therefore on the aggressor to show why any proposed, creative punishment is not justified by the aggressor’s aggression.  Otherwise an additional burden is being placed on the victim, in addition to the harm already done him.  If the victim wants to avoid shouldering this additional burden, the aggressor is estopped from objecting because it was the aggressor who placed the victim in the position of having the burden in the first place.  If there is a gray area, the aggressor ought not be allowed to throw his hands up in mock perplexity and escape liability; rather, the line ought to come down on the side of the gray that most favors the victim, unless the aggressor can further narrow the gray area with convincing theories and arguments, for the aggressor is the one who brings the gray into existence.

Similarly with the issue of proportionality itself.  Although proportionality or reciprocity is a requirement in general, if a prima facie case for punishment can be established (as it can be whenever force is initiated), the burden of proof lies with the aggressor to demonstrate that any proposed use of force, even including execution, mutilation, or enslavement, exceeds bounds of proportionality.  As mentioned above, in practice there are several clear areas:  murder justifies execution; minor, non-armed, non-violent theft does not.  Exceeding known appropriate levels of retaliation makes the retaliator an aggressor to the extent of the excess amount of force used.  But there are indeed gray areas in which it is difficult, if not impossible, to precisely delimit the exact amount of maximum permissible punishment.  However, this uncertain situation, this grayness, is caused by the aggressor.  The victim is placed in a quandary, and might underpunish, or underutilize his right to punish, if he has to justify how much force he can use.  Or he might have to expend extra resources in terms of time or money (e.g. to hire a philosopher or lawyer to figure out exactly how much punishment is warranted), which would impermissibly increase the total harm done to the victim.

It is indeed difficult to determine the bounds of proportionality in many cases.  But we do know one thing:  force has been initiated against the victim, and thus force, in general, may be used against the victimizer.  Other than for easy or established cases, any ambiguity or doubt must be resolved in favor of the victim, unless the aggressor bears his burden of argument to explain why the proposed punishment exceeds his own initial aggression.49

… We know that it is permissible to employ violence against an aggressor. How much? Let the aggressor bear the burden of figuring this out.

49 Many crimes would have established or generally accepted levels or at least ranges of permissible punishment, for example as worked out by a private justice system of a free society, and/or by specialists writing treatises on the subject, and the like. … No doubt litigants in court or equivalent forum, especially the defendant, would hire lawyers to present the best arguments possible in favor of punishment and its permissible bounds. In a society that respected the general libertarian theory of rights and punishment developed herein, one could even expect lawyers to specialize in arguing whether a defendant is estopped from asserting a particular defense, whether a given defense is universalizable or particularizable, when the burden of proof for each side has been satisfied, and the like.

With regard to the concept of making a prima facie case and switching the burden of proof from the plaintiff to the defendant, Richard Epstein has set forth a promising theory of pleadings and presumptions, whereby one party who wishes to upset the initial balance must establish a prima facie case, which may be countered by a defense, which may be met with a second round of prima facie arguments, etc.

 

 

 

 nskinsella:
for mundane theft of a homogenous owned object, it might

 

Well, at least you admit that your arguments don’t work against crimes involving economic goods. That gives up quite a lot of ground right there. But as I pointed out above, you’ve already given up the game by admitting (if unintentionally) that hitting upon a precisely proportional and appropriate punishmeent is not an exact (apriori) science.

 

 

I have given up nothign. It is not as if I have granted that we have to restrict the victim’s options to restitution “where it can be defined.” No. The victim has a general right to “do things to the aggressor,” as noted above. In fact, in keeping with my focus on the victim, I explicitly have argued that the victim ought to be able to choose within a range of options. As I wrote (SEction IV.B, “The Victim’s Options”):

A victim who has been shot in the arm by a robber and who has thus lost his arm is clearly entitled, if he wishes, to amputate the robber’s own arm. But this, of course, does not restore the victim’s arm; it does not make him whole. Perfect restitution is always an unreachable goal, for crimes cannot be undone.

This is not to say that the right to punish is therefore useless, but we must recognize that the victim remains a victim even after retaliating against the wrongdoer. No punishment can undo the harm done. For this reason the victim should not be artificially or easily restricted in his range of punishment options, because this would be to further victimize him. The victim did not choose to be made a victim, did not choose to be placed in a situation where he has only one narrow punishment option (namely, eye-for-an-eye retaliation). On the contrary, the responsibility for this situation is entirely that of the aggressor, who by his action has damaged the victim. Because the aggressor has placed the victim in a no-win situation where being restricted to one narrow type of remedy may recompense the victim even less than other remedies, the aggressor is estopped from complaining if the victim chooses among varying types of punishment, subject to the proportionality requirement.

In practice this means that, for example, the victim of assault and battery need not be restricted to only having the aggressor beaten (or even killed). The victim may abhor violence, and might choose to forego any punishment at all if his only option was to either beat or punish the aggressor. The victim may prefer, instead, to simply be compensated monetarily out of any (current or future) property of the wrongdoer. If the victim will gain more satisfaction from using force against the aggressor in a way different than the manner in which the aggressor violated the victim’s rights (e.g. taking property of an aggressor who has beat the victim), the aggressor is clearly estopped from complaining about this, as long as proportionality is satisfied.

In cases where the aggression is theft of some homogenous object that may be replaced with money, then if the victim wants to do to the aggressor what the aggressor did to the victim, then the victim may “take from the aggressor” something having a value in that range. It is not hard ot imagein a libertarian legal system using the market value of stolen objects as a standard when it is available. That in no wise implies restitution is primary or there is no right to proportionately retaliate.

 

 

 

 nskinsella:
I think the standard is: however much money the victim can–or could, if punishment is not literally permitted–bargain away with *this aggresor* his right to punish.

 

Why? This strikes me as very arbitrary, arguably more so in the hypothetical scenario than in the actual scenario since you have an individual or group of individuals simply imagining what could be extracted from the criminal under threat of punishment (what the criminal would be willing to give up that at least meets the minimum the victim would be willing to accept, all within the bounds of some non-exact proportionality standard).

 

 

I explained in detail in the article. In theory the victim has a right to proportionately retaliate. But this is costly for a variety of reasons pointed out by various writers, eg. Barnett, and I agree; therefore I believe that in practice a system would tend away from punishemnt and toward some kind of monetary award. As it evolves however and as it is rooted in the right to punish the monetary awards will have some realtion to this, naturally.

 

 

 

 nskinsella:
so unless you can articulate one, instead of just punting it to the courts as if their arbitrary, standardless decisions amount to justice–then you are off base in thinking restitution can be primary.

 

Oh, come now. For a libertarian who favors a competitive, free market legal system, you display an unnusual lack of confidence in private courts. Must your Libertarian Law Code be handed down from on high by someone who has deduced it entirely from apodictic axioms?

 

 

Geoff we are talking about what the standards should be. You cannot even define your “restitutiN” without some standards the courts are supposed to apply. You can’t just wave your hands and punt it to the courts.

 

 

Sure, some things are hard to put a monetary reward to, like a person’s life. But your retribution standard suffers from the same difficulties and adds more, even violates the legal principle that someone should not judge his own case.

 

 

I never said people should be a judge in their own case or that a legal system would not tend to frown on self-help. What are you talking about?

Retribution does not suffer the same difficulties as “valuing” a person’s life. In any event, you seem to keep assuming that IF you can obectively define “restitution” then that gives you the rihgt to deny the victim’s right to punish. It doesn’t. IT’s one of his options.

 

 

In this very post you’ve as much as admitted that your retribution standard suffers from the same difficulties. See above where I’ve pointed this out. And in  the case of an actual bargaining scenario, you are to a significant degree making the victim the judge in his own case.

 

 

Untrue; we are talking of the arguemnts presented to some kind of institutional justice system, to one’s peers and community.

 

Sure, there is tragedy in life, even great tregedy. But there is no “reward” for the victim of murder in the form of punishment of the criminal either. The victim is dead, he gets nothing at all out of it. Your theory solves nothing in this regard.

 

I agree. Nothing can undo injustice done. The only question is: when there is injustice, when someone is victimized, what is he entitled to do in response?  He is entitled to retaliate. This is true regardless of the undeniable fact that the retaliation will not undo the harm done.

In some cases, the crime is such that most of hte harm can be undone (or so the victim subjectively views it)–e.g. if your car is stolen and lost, you might prefer to take $10k from the thief to replace your car, rather than exercise your right to beat the hell out of him. If htat is your preference–fine, go for it. If your child is murdered, or you are raped, you might prefer to execute the criminal than to get money from him.

 

 

 

 

 nskinsella:
But there are NONE for your floating abstraction of “restitution” unanchored to any standard whatsoever.

 

This is complete and utter nonsense. I am truly surprised someone trained in law and familiar with legal history, including the history with which libertarians tend to be familiar and mainstreamers ignorant, would make such an absurd claim. You’ve admitted there are acceptable standards at least for economic goods. We can refer to prevailing market prices for stolen, damaged and lost property. But we can go beyond this. We can refer to past and recent earned incomes of victims as well as reasonable expectations for future or lost income had the crime not occured. We can determine to a reasonable approximation how much someone values their lost time. We can reference the prices that people tend to place on goods and services related to accidental dismemberment and death, such as in the form of insurance premiums and payments. These are not perfect analogs, sure. And sure nothing can restore a life, lost time or (at least for now) a lost limb as good as new. Nothing can completely undo the crime as if it had not really occured. To a large extent this is simply railing against reality for not fitting your utopian conception of justice, however. Why not have a conception of justice that fits what is possible in the real world? Some compensation can be acquired, and yes upper and lower limits on monetary settlements can be discovered that are no more arbitrary than your upper and lower limits on proportional punishment. And this can be done without recourse to your arbitrary standard and extra steps in the form of a bargaining negotiation based on a supposed right to punish.

 

 

Yes, Geoff, I’m aware of various positive law standards that have arisen in the past. Silly me, I thought we were talking about libertarian princples. Many of these rules of thumb would be adopted no doubt but none of this implies there is no right to proportionately retaliate nor that this is not the proper anchor of the subsidiary types of damage awards.

 

 

A theory of virtue ethics and natural rights blocks estoppel without even having to deny it.

 

 

Sounds like some kind of juvenile D&D move to me.

Stephan Kinsella [email protected] www.StephanKinsella.com

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nskinsella replied on Fri, May 22 2009 10:05 AM

 

 Brainpolice:

 

 

1) It does not follow from the fact that someone endorses aggression for a given circumstance that he necessarily endorses by that very action aggression in any and all circumstances or the circumstances of the victims choosing. If he’s got a democratic majoritarian theory of justice, then that implies the endorsement of aggression under a certain set of circumstances but not in others, thus allowing the aggressor to complain coherently if wrongly under the latter set of circumstances. Sure, we don’t think such a theory is valid, but estoppel itself does not show this. You’ll no doubt say that AE does show this, but as you know I disagree. At any rate, estoppel is much more limited in what it can establish than is usually let on.

 

In fact, such a line of argument is little more than a rhetoric trick. It purposefully ignores any argument I may present and ends up being a nice driveby “I win” sort of thing. “You did bad thing X, therefore you cannot have a rational argument against anyone in the world doing bad thing X to you”. This quickly devolves into a sea of hypocrisy and regress. Apparently we don’t even have to provide a positive case for using violence on people as “punishment”, we can simply make a sophisticated “he did it” argument. But the fact that “he did it” is not really relevant to whether or not it is justified for you to do it in turn. The effect of this argument is actually to avoid having to rationally justify punishment by merely shifting all burden of proof to the punished and then trying to claim that the punished cannot even meet such a burden of proof because “they did it”.

I have no problem calling this argument sophistry – for it takes the form of a carte blanch justification in the absence of an actual justification by ruling out the possibility of rationally argueing with the would-be-justifier in the first place. The justification is simply presupposed as if it was “self-evident” – which means that no formal justification as actually given. The appeal to the offender thus becomes a distraction from the fact that the proponent of punishment has not provided a justification for punishment. These purely “negative proofs” of the Hoppean form aren’t really proofs at all, they take the form of drive-by argument winners. But when one thinks deeply about it, it isn’t even a legitimate argument. It constitutes “proof by ruling out the possibility of you argueing against me in the first place, so I can ignore your arguments completely and just declare that you implicitly justify my position”. Hence, the wielder of such arguments doesn’t even have to really prove anything.

Their correctness is presupposed!

 

 

I am continually mystified by fellow libertarians, who already (for some reason) believe in the objective superiority of libertarian ethics over competing ethics, reach with horror at a libertarian argument based … on the idea that libertarian ethics are indeed objectively superior to alternatives. Whatever.

Oh, well, I guess there is an aversion on the part of some to “knock-down” arguments–to them, everything has to always be an on-going, open-ended “conversation”. (See Hoppe’s discussion of “knockdown” arguments in the Intro to Ethics of Liberty; also various comments in A Theory of Socialism and Capitalism re positivism, linked below.) Modernists are big skeptics/relativists, and have an aversion to any argument that even purports to “prove” something definitive.

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Update: Perfect Restitution is Impossible; An Unreachable Goal.

Update: Libertarian Answer Man: On Restitution going Beyond Two Teeth for a Tooth

Mises post; archived comments below.

The “two teeth for a tooth” view of punishment is espoused by Murray Rothbard (see “Punishment and Proportionality,” in Ethics of Liberty) and Walter Block (see Toward a Libertarian Theory of Guilt and Punishment for the Crime of Statism and Radical Libertarianism: Applying Libertarian Principles to Dealing with the Unjust Government, Parts I & II). Walter received a email recently from a Ukrainian software developer, Vladislav Gluhovsky, with a critique of this idea and some related thoughts. Mr. Gluhovsky was unable to prepare a more fleshed out version of his idea, but consented to my posting an edited version of it, which appears below:

Compensation Ratio

I’d like to offer for your consideration my critique of “two teeth for a tooth + scaring + expences” justice concept. The problem is that if the crime detection ratio is less than 50%, then a compensation ratio of 2:1 does not provide sufficient restitution for the victim. Additionally, if scaring and expenses are negligible, then this law would not discourage crime.

From the victim’s point of view:

Suppose one in every 36 thiefs gets caught after he commits a crime. When I play a roulette, I bet a dollar on a certain number, and if I win I get 36 bucks. That’s how every insurance agency work, and that’s both fair and economically sound. Now a thief forced me to play the same game with my wallet, but if I win I only get double, instead of 36:1. That’s unfair! I don’t see any justice here, especially since I did not volunteer to play this stupid game in the first place.
Or, let me put it another way. Suppose I lost my wallet, and for some reason I am desperate to get my wallet now (e.g. I am poor and hungry). It seems to me that the compensation ratio should be such that I could immediately sell my title to the future compensation at the price of stolen stuff, rather than wait until the thief is caught (possibly forever). Insurance companies would buy the title only if the compensation ratio exceeds the crime detection ratio–and so be it! Justice requires the victim be compensated in full, at the expense of the criminal, regardless of the price. The victim should not suffer even the slightest loss.

From the thief’s point of view:

Suppose that on average only one in every ten attempts fail. If a thief is caught, then he only pays double and walks away (scaring and expenses are negligible). Would it not be a lucrative business?

Scaring and expenses could be negligible in the following cases:

Scaring: if a thief is small and weak (e.g. a little girl), or if a she steals only when the owner is absent.

Expenses: if a thief is caught on the spot, or his ex-girlfriend reported on him later.

Natural Law argument:

Suppose I am a farmer in a free country, and every other night somebody steals a chicken from me. After I had lost ten chickens, I catch the thief, then assemble my neighbours to decide what to do.

I say: “The thief should pay me for ten chickens plus expenses.”

The thief says: “Wait a minute! I only stole one chicken, you have no proof that I stole the others!”

My neighbours say: “We don’t care if you stole one, or two, or ten. You should not steal at all! Someone has to compensate the farm owner, and it will be you, since you are guilty of theft.”

I don’t think anything less would satisfy the farmers here. Who would disagree with their judgement? Perhaps, criminals and some sophisticated scholars. If the law would contradict the common perception of justice, it would not be sustainable–people would simply take the law in their own hands–which is exactly what happens now in similar cases in most countries. But in a libertarian society a law could not be imposed on people against their will, and nobody would support a law that makes theft profitable.

Suggested solution:

If the criminal is likely to get away, then the compensation ratio should exceed the crime detection ratio.

archived comments:

Comments (48)

  • Andras
  • I think you forget the risk of being shot while attempting to commit a crime – that would kill the “lucrative business” theory. In a free society ruled by the rules of just conduct (Nomos law) the law would allow the protection of property. But of course we can’t make a law, the law is not a product of human design, it is a product of human action. Humans design privileges and commands and then they call that “law”. Anyway it is hard to imagine that one should pay for crimes committed by others. This scenario ignores the fact that losses are a reality with or without crime and that never recovered loses would be more efficient for the development of the society than punishing someone for crimes he never committed (even if he is a criminal). Justice doesn’t mean 100% restitution. Law doesn’t serve any purpose but countless different purposes of different individuals.Human action doesn’t produce laws which will made crime impossible it produce laws which made the order of events more predictable so that countless individuals can efficiently live their everyday life’s in a spontaneous order (society).And one more thing, if person “A” has 10 chickens and person “B” has 10 chickens and person “A” made a fence and person “B” don’t and a thief stole 5 chickens from “B” (because it is easier) and 1 chicken from “A” (because “A’s” investment in protection) does it mean that the thief is more responsible for his crime of 5 stolen chicken from “B” than for the 1 stolen chicken from “A”?

    Because in this theory of “two teeth for a tooth” the thief should pay 10 chickens for “B” and 2 chickens for “A” so the less responsible owner who doesn’t invest anything in the protection of his property would gain much more from the deal than “A” would.

    And if this is not enough, what about the fact that according to this theory the thief is less responsible for his crime for stealing from “A” (he owes him only 2 chickens (2:1)) than for stealing from “B” (he owes him 10 chickens (2:1)) not because his intentions was different (or his crime less) but because his options was more limited by the actions of higher responsibility of “A” (and his investment in property protection).

    Unfortunately crime cannot be erased it can be only minimized to levels acceptable by public opinion to levels where efficient social cooperation and economic exchange is possible.

    Getting hurt is a reality of life, getting hurt so much that we cannot recover that we cannot regenerate is the point we should be concerned with. And of course when we found the source of the negative impact then we should be able to minimize it and if possible to force it to pay for the loses he is responsible for, never more than that. Law is not an insurance.

  • Published: June 6, 2009 4:45 PM

  • Matthew
  • The way I’ve come to view restitution is as follows, in case anyone finds it interesting:If C (criminal) damages V (victim), the restitution to be paid is the exact amount such that if V could rewind time and choose whether to relive being victimized and repaid, or to instead bypass that fate, then it would be an ambiguous decision for V because the two destinies would be equally advantageous. Any less repayment would not make V whole, and any more would qualify as revenge rather than justice. How to calculate said amount is another matter.
  • Published: June 6, 2009 5:12 PM

  • Andras
  • How can you “rewind time”? You simply can’t know what would be the state of your property in this concurrent situations, you can just have some expectations. If I have $100 and someone steal it from me and 2 weeks later I get the thief, I just can’t know how much I would made from that $100 if it was in my possession during that time. I could make $5 using it or I could lose $15 or whatever of the countless possibilities could happened. All I know as a fact that I was deprived of $100 at a particular moment, nothing more. So I can ask for my $100 and for some other compensation for the lost opportunity, but it is impossible to determine that additional compensation in a just way. If I get back my $100, I am recovered and I can go further from that point, any other scenario is a political and not an economic way to make income.I want to get back the stolen property from the thief but I don’t want additionally to stole any property from the thief not directly and not indirectly by hiding behind the “law”. Of course after I get back my $100 I would like to see one more thing, namely I would like to see the minimization of a possibility of an event of another theft (by this thief) so I would like to see him to pay the cost of the actions of the institutions of the society required to made possible to me to get back my $100. Because enforcing the law isn’t free and I would like to see that this thief pay that additional cost and not me and not the other taxpayers. That would be a rule of just conduct and probably this kind of rules will be a product of human action in a spontaneous order.
  • Published: June 6, 2009 5:40 PM

  • Stephan Kinsella
  • Matthew, “If C (criminal) damages V (victim), the restitution to be paid is the exact amount such that if V could rewind time and choose whether to relive being victimized and repaid, or to instead bypass that fate, then it would be an ambiguous decision for V because the two destinies would be equally advantageous. Any less repayment would not make V whole, and any more would qualify as revenge rather than justice. How to calculate said amount is another matter.”I agree with you to some extent in your criticism of restitution. This is discussed here on the forum: esp. my comments: herehereherehere.
  • Published: June 6, 2009 6:01 PM

  • Alex
  • If the criminal claims to only have stolen one of the ten chickens, why not put the burden of catching the other thief(ves) on him? If he’s telling the truth, it’ll certainly be a possible task. He puts up the money for all 10, and gets it back when he finds the rest. This option may often be unprofitable, but at least it’s something.
  • Published: June 6, 2009 6:19 PM

  • AJ
  • So just compensation for a crime should be a function of how good is your police force? i.e. how good they are in capturing criminals?
  • Published: June 6, 2009 7:02 PM

  • RWW
  • The whole notion that there can be an objectively “correct” or “just” amount of compensation for a crime flies in the face of subjective value theory and smacks of utilitarianism.
  • Published: June 6, 2009 7:13 PM

  • John Boyle
  • Try this idea: Crimes are implicit acceptances of contracts to give restitution and/or to be punished.These contracts can specify any kind of restitution/punishment whatsoever. (One is free to write any contract one desires.)However, in the absence of an explicit statement of the contract that specifies the punishment (e.g. a sign that says “Anyone who falsely activates the fire alarm will be charged $500”; these exist already), we have to figure out some kind of default. This must be governed by social norms and considerations of “reasonability”–e.g. it would be reasonable to demand that the thief give you at least your property back, but demanding ten times that would probably be excessive.But if you lived in a society where the restitution specified for most thefts was 10x the value of the property stolen, then it would be reasonable to demand 10x back from any thief, even if you didn’t put up a sign explicitly saying so. The thief could be expected to know that the punishment was 10x the crime, and therefore his stealing your property was an implicit agreement to pay up.

    Thus, the farmer who knows he has only a tiny chance of detecting a thief is free to put up a sign declaring that he will SHOOT anyone he catches stealing a single egg. As long as the thief can be reasonably expected to have seen and understood the sign when he commits the crime, the farmer would have the right to enforce the rule and shoot the thief.

    Hotels frequently set rules of this sort for their customers. They assemble a list of offenses and their associated punishments. Sometimes they require their customers to sign a contract saying they agree to submit to these punishments if they commit the associated offenses; sometimes they post this list in a prominent place and expect customers to read it (or to deal with the consequences of not reading it). Companies, landlords, and universities likewise require employees, tenants, and students to sign similar contracts when they enter a relationship.

    The severity of these punishments does not need to be at all related to the severity of the offenses. A hotel could charge a $1000 fine for stealing a towel. As long as the customers signed a contract agreeing to submit to this extreme punishment, they would be bound to submit to it and the hotel would have the right to enforce it. However, in the absence of an explicit contract that the customer-thief actually read and signed, the thief could reasonably protest that he could not be expected to expect a ridiculous punishment like that, and therefore his stealing the towel did not constitute implicit agreement to submit to it. In that case, the hotel would not have the right to charge him $1000.

    One can only put implicit contract-agreements on one’s own property. I can declare (with a neon green sign) that anyone who enters my house agrees to pay me $10,000. But I can’t declare that, by stepping into your own house, you agree to pay me $10,000.

    Note that this system tends to encourage standardization of law. If I want to specify an abnormally large punishment for a violation of my property, then I have to go to the trouble of making it clear to the world–with an impossible-to-miss sign, or a paper contract that the violator read and signed. Otherwise, I cannot claim that the violator could reasonably be expected to know the punishment and that therefore his violation constituted agreement to the punishment. But if I am content with the social norm, the punishment that the thief can be expected to expect without my talking to him at all, then I don’t need to talk to him at all in order to have the right to inflict that punishment.

    And a very easy default punishment could be, “Either settle with me here and agree to the punishment I want to inflict, or come to trial at a well-respected local court of law and submit to their sentence.” That is likely what a society would evolve towards.

  • Published: June 6, 2009 7:18 PM

  • RWW
  • You can’t enter a contract implicitly.
  • Published: June 6, 2009 7:19 PM

  • Alexander S. Peak
  • “If the criminal is likely to get away, then the compensation ratio should exceed the crime detection ratio.”Some thoughts about this solution:(1) The crime detection ratio is bound to fluctuate. Should the debt to the criminal fluctuate so arbitrarily? Not to defend crime, but criminals do have rights, and these include the right to not undergo undue harm. We would not execute a man for stealing a stick of gum because such a punishment would be in no just proportion to the crime. We have to make sure we are not violating the rights of the criminal in the process of restoring to the victim her prior state, and for this reason I have to be sceptical of a compensation ratio that can fluctuate so arbitrarily.(2) Won’t the crime detection ratio be different for each private protection agency (PPA)? Which agency’s detection ratio do we use–the most successful agency’s or the least successful agency’s? Or, does each company charge the criminal based upon its own crime detection rate? If this last option be the one taken, will not this regime eliminate the need for efficiency? After all, if the PPA I run becomes 50% less efficient over the next fiscal year, all we have to do is increase the charge we present to the criminals we do catch by 100%.

    (3) The crime detection rate is bound to differ from town to town, county to county, commonwealth to commonwealth. (I am using the term commonwealth since I doubt we’ll be calling them “states” if we ever achieve a stateless society.) So, when dealing with the debt of the criminal Jones, do we base this simply on the crime detection rate of the local town, of the whole county, or of the whole commonwealth or world?

    Again, it is important to me that “justice” be not arbitrary, so how do we find a non-arbitrary solution?

    (4) When the author says that the thief who stole one chicken should be punished for the theft of the other nine chickens as well, I outright disagree. A person is innocent until proven guilty beyond a reasonable doubt, and a reasonable doubt certainly exists in that instance. If the community forces the thief to pay ten chickens to the farmer, then that community is nothing less than a mob.

    Andras writes, “Because in this theory of ‘two teeth for a tooth’ the thief should pay 10 chickens for ‘B’ and 2 chickens for ‘A’ so the less responsible owner who doesn’t invest anything in the protection of his property would gain much more from the deal than ‘A’ would.”

    Although I had supported “two-teeth-for-a-tooth + capture-and-arbitration-expenses” for two or two-and-a-half years, I now support “one-tooth-for-a-tooth + capture-and-arbitration-expenses + interest-for-time-preference-loss.”

    But either way, the possibility of economic loss in the event that the chicken-thief not caught will be enough to encourage the chicken farmers to invest in fences.

    Beyond that, I would say that the opinion that B was less responsible than A is subjective.

    Regards,
    Alex Peak

  • Published: June 6, 2009 7:21 PM

  • Andras
  • “Beyond that, I would say that the opinion that B was less responsible than A is subjective.”I may use a wrong word here, it is not less responsible in a formal way but maybe a little more naive if someone thinks that no effort is needed to protect property. Anyway there is some level of responsibility here because if I did not take care of my property by taking steps in order to decrease a possibility for theft, I would call myself less responsible in a subjective way but still.
  • Published: June 6, 2009 7:58 PM

  • Alexander S. Peak
  • Dear Andras,To be clear, I do not disagree with you that it is irresponsible. My subjective opinion on the matter is in agreement with yours.Regards,
    Alex Peak
  • Published: June 6, 2009 8:14 PM

  • David C
  • Another solution would be to multiply the compensation ratio every time the criminal is caught. For example, the first time he’d could pay 110%, the second 120%, the third 140%. Light punishment at first, but in this example 100% + 2^32 * 10% = over 40 billion percent after 32 tries. Thru measurement a formula could be devised to create optimal justice. The formula could take into account time since the last crime, how transient the criminal is, the estimated loss amount, similar crimes in the area not compensated for, and the number of thefts, and so on.One more thing. People are imperfect, and bad things happen. I think it would be a mistake to make the goal of justice to have perfect compensation, the goal of justice should be to make sure bad choices are contained. Unfair losses could and should be managed in other ways.
  • Published: June 6, 2009 8:52 PM

  • Nathan
  • The victim should suffer some loss. This seems harsh, but it is the only way to encourage people to pursue methods to protect themselves and prevent crimes.Price of good + time preference makes some sense to me. Including arbitration expenses makes slightly less sense. It would be impossible to distinguish high arbitration rates for revenge payment.In this system the majority or crimes may still not be punished so the owners still have a great incentive to protect themselves.
  • Published: June 6, 2009 8:59 PM

  • John Boyle
  • You can’t enter contracts implicitly? Oh, really?
    “By clicking Install, you agree to our End-User License Agreement.”
    “By opening this seal you are agreeing to the terms below.”
    “By establishing an account and logging in, you agree to the terms of our privacy policy.”These things are frequently printed on products and software nowadays. I think these are legal ways to establish binding contracts, little different from “By signing your name here, you agree to all of the above.” And if they work, then why not something like this:
    “By stealing any product from this store, you agree to pay the manager a fine of three times the price of the product.”It seems to me that the only issue is making the implicit punishment-contract clear to potential property violators, so they can be expected to know the consequences of their actions before they perform them. This is an implementation problem, not a fundamental problem, and I already addressed it.
  • Published: June 6, 2009 9:15 PM

  • Stephan KinsellaAuthor Profile Page
  • David C:”Another solution would be to multiply the compensation ratio every time the criminal is caught. For example, the first time he’d could pay 110%, the second 120%, the third 140%.”What gets me about all these restitution arguments is the assumption the deadbeat, high time preference, ignorant and illiterate, criminal gatset are supposed to earn $100 much less thousands or millions.
  • Published: June 6, 2009 9:53 PM

  • RWW
  • The victim should suffer some loss. This seems harsh, but it is the only way to encourage people to pursue methods to protect themselves and prevent crimes.You’re on the right track, but here’s the full story: a victim whose attacker cannot be located has no one from whom he may rightly claim restitution (other than some sort of insurance, of course). The risk of becoming the victim of a crime whose perpetrator is never found is the proper source of the incentive you are referring to.These things are frequently printed on products and software nowadays. I think these are legal ways to establish binding contracts…“Legal” is not synonymous with “legitimate.”
  • Published: June 7, 2009 12:13 AM

  • Gil
  • “The whole notion that there can be an objectively ‘correct’ or ‘just’ amount of compensation for a crime flies in the face of subjective value theory and smacks of utilitarianism.” – RWWBlammo!! RWW hits the nail on the head. Since we’re presuming an anarcho-Libertarian scenario then two steps come to mind:1. The private property owner has the right to defend his/her property with deadly force if need be.2. What the criminal has to pay is determined by the victim(s) not a third party.

    There’s no universal law that that says “an eye for an eye” (unless you believe in the ‘Law of Moses’ I s’pose) or “two eyes for an eye”. If villagers track a chicken thief down and hang him – how exactly have they acted unjust? It’s their loss hence their choice of punishment. Chances are people will choose less severe punishments when the crime is minor and/or the effects are minor. A poor village hangs thieves because they can’t afford loss as they’re living at a bare subsistence level. A rich town may be more lenient as they can afford some loss in a way they may be less desperate to seek a harsh punishment and may go for “an eye for an eye”. Besides why just ‘restitution’, why not ‘punishment’ for the times when a criminal has no means to repay (e.g. public flogging)?

  • Published: June 7, 2009 12:15 AM

  • P.M.Lawrence
  • Gil wrote ‘There’s no universal law that that says “an eye for an eye” (unless you believe in the ‘Law of Moses’ I s’pose) or “two eyes for an eye”‘.Actually, there sort of is. People have done computer simulations to test out strategies for repeated Prisoner’s Dilemma situations, and the best one they found was “tit for tat” – assume good faith, and if it’s missing, retaliate just once on the same scale then revert to the other form. As an empirical law, it appears from testing to work.
  • Published: June 7, 2009 12:39 AM

  • J.R.
  • Hi John Boyle,””By stealing any product from this store, you agree to pay the manager a fine of three times the price of the product.””Are you suggesting enforcement of a contract to steal?For example, Austrians associated with the Mises Institute think fractional reserve banking is per se illegitimate because FRB is incompatible with property rights. In much the same way that a contract for murder or a contract to sell a square circle (there is no such thing) are unenforceable because the are incompatible with property rights, so to is FRB.

    How would a contract to steal be compatible with property rights?

    Thanks, J.R.

  • Published: June 7, 2009 1:20 AM

  • scott t
  • i guess until some vast moral edifying takes place some types of theft or property conflicts will occur. i am not sure if they are overall increasing or decreasing.
    the state has played favorites in this area.
    if say a plow was stolen from a farmer denying him of his livleyhood and plow thief was located , is the farmer made better by getting his plow back only or getting his plow back plus the punishment of plow thief.
    i wouldnt say that a plow theif automatically will go after more plows.
    maybe an emphasis on location and retreival of stolen goods ( booby trapping plows or in todays world rf and other devices are bringing that cost down) with punishment and force-defences for more vital items such as ones personal life.
  • Published: June 7, 2009 1:29 AM

  • Alexander S. Peak
  • Mr. David C,Are we to become central planners, then?Mr. Nathan,You write, “The victim should suffer some loss. This seems harsh, but it is the only way to encourage people to pursue methods to protect themselves and prevent crimes.”

    I think you assume too much. Clearly, even under a regime that aims to restore total restitution to victims, there will always be those victims who unfortunate do not receive restition as their aggressors are never caught. This fact alone will provide enough “encourage[ment]” for people to “pursue methods to protect themselves.” We need not look for further contrivances, and we certainly should never surrender the view that full restitution is the goal of any legitimate justice system even if you subjectively believe that more “encourage[ment]” is needed than such a justice system would provide. (I see RWW has expressed the same sentiment.)

    I’d like to take the opportunity to encourage everyone to check out Rothbard’s anti-Coasean view on pollution and his rejection that the free-rider effect is actually a problem in a free market setting. Although these may not seem immediately relevant, I believe they are.

    Mr. Boyle,

    You write, “And if they work, then why not something like this: ‘By stealing any product from this store, you agree to pay the manager a fine of three times the price of the product.'”

    I have to wonder (1) why any store would say “three times” when it could say “thirty times” or “three quadrillion times” and (2) whether this “contract” would jive with the title-transfer theory. After all, the title to the property remains in the hands of the store. At no point is the title transferred to the criminal.

    This isn’t to say I disagree with you that the criminal obliges himself, via the act of aggression, to pay restitution to his victim (preferably in the immediate return of the stolen item).

    Mr. Gil writes, “1. The private property owner has the right to defend his/her property with deadly force if need be.”

    I disagree, partially. Since I do not believe execution is an appropriate punishment for the theft of gum, I also cannot say that it is ever just to shoot someone in the head as she flees with my piece of gum.

    But, more broadly, I do not consider execution an appropriate punishment for any theft, no matter how grand. Thus, to shoot at a thief’s head as she flees is an act of aggression far more excessive than the theft itself, and ought to be considered illegal in a stateless society.

    I believe you have the right to use arms to stop a thief, but only so long as you’re aiming for e.g. the thief’s leg and so long as you do not accidentally kill the thief in the process.

    “2. What the criminal has to pay is determined by the victim(s) not a third party.”

    When two parties are in dispute, they take their dispute to an arbitor who is, by definition, a third party.

    “There’s no universal law that that says ‘an eye for an eye’ (unless you believe in the ‘Law of Moses’ I s’pose) or ‘two eyes for an eye’. If villagers track a chicken thief down and hang him – how exactly have they acted unjust?”

    By violating the natural law you seem to care so little for. I cannot help but to think that your system would create choas and mob-tyranny instead of anarchy. It is precisely chaos I wish to avoid.

    Regards,
    Alex Peak

  • Published: June 7, 2009 2:19 AM

  • Thinker
  • Since people value present goods over future goods, any theft results in loss for the victim. Furthermore, Gil is right in saying that the victim should determine the amount of restitution/punishment. Only the victim is capable of judging the loss incurred by a theft, and so may freely demand more than was stolen (to not do so would be a gift to the thief) and inflict punishment to satisfy a potential desire for vengeance, which, having been brought about by a theft, would not have occurred had the thief respected the victim’s property rights in the first place and therefore falls upon his shoulders.
  • Published: June 7, 2009 2:20 AM

  • Gil
  • Also the victim gets to choose the restitution/punishment as they are supposed to be the sovereign owner of their property. If any one could overrule the private victim then they’d have to be some sort of ‘higher power’, i.e. some sort of ‘statist’ entity.
  • Published: June 7, 2009 2:40 AM

  • Andras
  • “2. What the criminal has to pay is determined by the victim(s) not a third party.”In exchange (from this point of view) we are dealing with prices not with values (exactly because the fact that values are subjective), even if the value of the restitution seams less to the victim than the value of the property stolen from him.As I said before, the law is not here to make a 100% restitution (nor in value nor in price) even if sometimes it would be the case, it is here to “heal” the victim not to make him the same as it was before the theft. In the case of a theft we have many victims, the main victim (the owner of property), and all the other members of the society (because of the social cooperation, economic exchange). Additionally to this the action of catch (or to try to catch) the thief also has a considerable cost so it is also a lost in some way to the members of the spontaneous order society. So there is no way to undo a crime the closest thing we can do is to heal the victims, to minimize the negative consequences. Everyone who are looking for a 100% restitution missing the point of the law.Of course nobody should kill someone because of theft, but this is a very complex matter. First if someone steal a gum from me, I may suffer some loss but that loss isn’t critical for my future life so it isn’t critical to anyone. If I kill the thief I should be on trial as a murderer and public opinion will be against me (probably). But if someone try to steal a portion of my property big enough to make my survival chances critical I think the situation will be considerably different (I don’t say that I should shot the thief even then, but if I do public opinion may be on my side) in any case a thief will be in risk to try to steal from me.

    People can steal for many different reasons (non of them are acceptable but that doesn’t mean the law should treat all theft the same). Someone can steal a meal because he was hungry and he wasn’t able to solve the problem of hunger any different way. Someone other will steal (repeatedly) because he want to acquire wealth by criminal action.

    So a theft for survival is different than a repeated theft for property acquisition.

    A theft out of desperation isn’t the same as predatory theft. So if someone shot a predator while the predator attacks him or his property he isn’t a murderer and this isn’t only my opinion this is public opinion. It is important to know that law isn’t the sole thing we need here, we also need judges, law can only deal with abstractions to be able to use the law in a just way we need judges.

  • Published: June 7, 2009 5:17 AM

  • Vlad
  • Alexander S. Peak“If the community forces the thief to pay ten chickens to the farmer, then that community is nothing less than a mob.”I’d like to remind you, that “mob justice” only happens in those places, where nothing else could be done to prevent crime. Therefore, it is also in the interest of the caught criminals that the victims feel satisfied, otherwise the criminals might be in trouble.Suppose, in a certain town community decided, that compensation ratio for theft should be 50:1, because the thiefs are likely to get away, and they want to discourage theft. They put signs everywhere with warnings to the thiefs. This becomes a law in this city. When a thief is caught, the victim could claim any compensation, but a thief might appeal to the people who resolve disputes in this village, and they will not uphold any demand exceeding 50:1 ratio. In this case, I don’t see who can overrule the verdict, and how this community could be even compared with a mob.
  • Published: June 7, 2009 5:24 AM

  • Vlad
  • Alexander S. Peak“If the community forces the thief to pay ten chickens to the farmer, then that community is nothing less than a mob.”I’d like to remind you, that “mob justice” only happens in those places, where nothing else could be done to prevent crime. Therefore, it is also in the interest of the caught criminals that the victims feel satisfied, otherwise the criminals might be in trouble.Suppose, in a certain town community decided, that compensation ratio for theft should be 50:1, because the thiefs are likely to get away, and they want to discourage theft. They put signs everywhere with warnings to the thiefs. This becomes a law in this city. When a thief is caught, the victim could claim any compensation, but a thief might appeal to the people who resolve disputes in this village, and they will not uphold any demand exceeding 50:1 ratio. In this case, I don’t see who can overrule the verdict, and how this community could be even compared with a mob.
  • Published: June 7, 2009 5:25 AM

  • Andras
  • Wealth is exchange. So the real question is to what extent the theft affects the current order of economic exchange. Law is considered exactly with that. Let say I am a bus owner/driver. If someone steal my bus, two things happen first I will be unable to get income by transport other people to their work, they wouldn’t be able to get to the work the same way they usually do so they will most probably be late to work… the whole chain of exchange will be affected. Now should the thief give me two buses? Or… the matter at hand is much more complicated?
  • Published: June 7, 2009 5:32 AM

  • Andras
  • Vlad: “Suppose, in a certain town community decided, that compensation ratio for theft should be 50:1…”That isn’t a law, once again law is a product of human action and NOT a product a human design. If someone “decide” if someone’s will become a “law” then it isn’t a law (nomos) in a sense of a free society it is a privilege/command. It doesn’t matter if this “decider” is one person or a majority of some community or even if there is unanimity for that matter, it won’t be a law it will be a crime instead, so I would agree with Alexander it would made a mob out of that community. One more thing, because this will be also based on public opinion I must add that public opinion can be manipulated for a short period of time that is why it should be use only to “interpret” the law but not to make the law. Public opinion however is essential in the process of “growing” the law (to adapting the set of rules to the reality) in a long time – while considerable manipulation is difficult if not impossible – as a product of human action.Legislation is for the law of a designed organization not for the laws of a spontaneous order society, the fact that we crossed this line a long time ago is the reason why our society is in great trouble.
  • Published: June 7, 2009 6:22 AM

  • Andras
  • Vlad: “Suppose, in a certain town community decided, that compensation ratio for theft should be 50:1…”That isn’t a law, once again law is a product of human action and NOT a product a human design. If someone “decide” if someone’s will become a “law” then it isn’t a law (nomos) in a sense of a free society it is a privilege/command. It doesn’t matter if this “decider” is one person or a majority of some community or even if there is unanimity for that matter, it won’t be a law it will be a crime instead, so I would agree with Alexander it would made a mob out of that community. One more thing, because this will be also based on public opinion I must add that public opinion can be manipulated for a short period of time that is why it should be use only to “interpret” the law but not to make the law. Public opinion however is essential in the process of “growing” the law (to adapting the set of rules to the reality) in a long time – while considerable manipulation is difficult if not impossible – as a product of human action.Legislation is for the law of a designed organization not for the laws of a spontaneous order society, the fact that we crossed this line a long time ago is the reason why our society is in great trouble. Of course because law is dealing with abstractions it can’t tell you what to do it only can tell you what not to do. If it tells you what to do it isn’t a law it is a privilege/command wrapped in a wrong cloth.
  • Published: June 7, 2009 6:23 AM

  • Vlad
  • Andras: I did not understand who should decide, if even unanimity of the whole community does not matter? The time, when God would present the Stone Tablets of Law, is gone.
  • Published: June 7, 2009 8:42 AM

  • Andras
  • Vlad:There was no such time ever. Law is a product of human action it was present in a society (community) long before it is articulated and formally written down. The first written law wasn’t a product of human design or divine design for that matter, the long before existed law just was written down the first time. Human action in a society is ruled by the rules of just conduct (we call that a law) and many generations of trial and error and accepted principles made it possible. It is a spontaneous process many times changed deliberately but not designed for any particular purpose.The most important thing to remember that any “new” law must conform to the principles and spirit of the body of existing law. A community which are capable to “breed” your “50:1” law would need such a self destructive body of existing laws that it won’t be actually able to sustain itself, to exist. Judges and lawyers made better laws from existing laws, they don’t made new laws out of nothing… at least in a free society then don’t do that. The law are not someone’s will, it is a product of human action and every new set of rules any new law must respect the spirit of the existing body of laws.Society have no rights to decide on every possible issue, it isn’t omniscience it isn’t omnipresent so it shouldn’t be omnipotent… it only has the right to protect its members by conforming to the spirit of the existing laws.

    Imagine that a community unanimously decide to make a law which will establish that every overweight man must pay 50% of his income to the community. Will that be OK? Such a “law” wouldn’t respect the spirit of the existing laws… unanimity or not it would be a crime itself.

  • Published: June 7, 2009 9:13 AM

  • Vlad
  • Andras:
    1. The difference between overweight man and a thief is this: the former does not violate my rights and I am free not to associate with him; while the latter has entered in a business with me against my will, and it is only a question, on whose conditions we are going to conduct this business — on his or on mine. If the thief knows those conditions before he tries to steal — that’s fair.2. The law of 2:1 is simply unsustainable in case, when a thief is likely to get away. What are “the principles and spirit of the body of existing law” in the case of theft now? Surely not 2:1.
  • Published: June 7, 2009 11:05 AM

  • Andras
  • 1. Still doesn’t mean the community/society has right to make any law yet alone a totalitarian law.2. I never advocated the “law of 2:1″… my opinion is that the victim should get back the stolen object (or the equivalent in money if that object has a market price) not more and not less than that, but this is my opinion and while it could be the same as the actual law it doesn’t mean that it should be. The law would be what human action will produce over the course of time.About your question: I am not a practitioner of law so I may err here, but I believe the principles and spirit of the body of existing law would suggest something closer to a “1:1 law” instead of a “2:1 law”. And once again the law is not here to stop the thief (fences, alarms, guards etc. are for that purpose) it is here to somewhat minimize the chances for theft because of the punishment and more importantly to heal the victim(s).Additionally the stressfulness of the police to catch the thief will depend on how good the (this time) legislated rules which regulate the operation of the police are to make them efficient and how much resources the society is ready to put in the support of the operation of the police. In times where crime is higher than the society can tolerate there will be a tendency to increase those resources and to improve those rules by which the police are operating. In a case where crime is on such a low level that there is a good chances in the society to have a fairly efficient exchange and satisfaction among the majority of its members, there would be a tendency to withdraw some of the resources from the police and to employ those resources in other areas to solve other more important problems. In any case forcing the thief to pay more than he are responsible for isn’t justice but theft, you can’t hold him responsible for the (in)efficiency of the police just because some other thief had a chance to get away.
  • Published: June 7, 2009 11:32 AM

  • Andras
  • NOT stressfulness of the police… I meant successfulness of the police.
  • Published: June 7, 2009 11:37 AM

  • David Spellman
  • How about this approach:The farmer has had 10 chickens stolen. He posts a sign saying “10 chickens have been stolen here, and the next chicken thief caught will have to pay for all 10 chickens under the assumption that they stole them. If you do not want to pay for this crime, do not attempt to steal a chicken.” He also publicizes his intent to extract compensation from the next chicken thief caught widely in the community so every one knows what to expect.A chicken thief is caught in the act. The farmer points out the sign and tells the thief, “You knew what was going to be the consequence. I clearly publicized my intention. You had the choice, and if you had not attempted the theft, I could do nothing to you. But you tried the theft and got caught and now I am entitled to ten chickens from you.”The expectations and consequences were known by all parties before hand. No contract was entered into (given that thieves do not contract the terms of robberies), but the thief had perfect freedom to avoid the consequences by not infringing on the farmer’s property. If anything, the farmer has been quite gracious to publicize the terms of defense for his property to an anonymous enemy.

    If the issue is merely between the farmer and the thief with no external authority (the State or community or arbitrating organization), then on what basis could we find fault with any retribution ranging from “Go in peace, friend” to blowing the thief’s head off with a shotgun? If we find fault with any degree of defense of property, then we must impose a judicial authority with the power to enforce some kind of arbitrating force of its own.

    But if there is some judicial authority, then what is wrong with the farmer’s presentation and enforcement of terms? It is certainly not ex post facto. It certainly is not arbitrary or capricious. It is not retroactive in the sense that the farmer is not looking for the former thief to impose the penalty. Even if the thief were exposed, the farmer did not threaten to charge the former theft to him.

    The punishment is not fair, but does it have to be fair? The next thief caught obviously may not be responsible for the earlier thefts. If he had to pay, someone gets away with theft and he is punished for acts he did not commit. Many people would say that is unjust and unfair. They say that no one should be punished for acts unless they can be proved to be guilty. That is a good idea, but the point of this blog thread is to discuss the calculation problem in reference to profiting from crimes.

    But, wait, there is another dimension to fairness. The farmer warned a potential thief that he would be held accountable for previous thefts, whether he was responsible or not. The farmer was offering a contract of sorts: anyone who wants to can try to steal from him. If they are successful they get a free chicken. If they get caught, they owe him ten chickens. This is nothing more than a gamble. No one has to take the farmer’s offer, but if they do, they are implicitly agreeing to the terms of the bet. Enforcing the punishment is merely settling a contract. The thief does not need to sign or bind himself; the fact that everyone knows the terms is sufficient to have the judicial entity enforce the contract.

    Now, I would not expect that a thief who robs you in the parking lot at the mall would be liable for all the stuff someone stole from your house two years ago. Clearly there are limits to claiming that the current perpetrator is liable for past crimes. But conceptually a person could advertise the consequences of attempting crime and enforce them as a reverse gamble. “Trespassers will be shot” is a form of such advertising. If you don’t want to get shot, stay off the property. No duh.

    Think of another analogy: the amusement hall or park. Operators of an entertainment venue can charge whatever they want for their service. If you can’t or won’t pay, you are free to stay outside. They have done you no hurt. They are offering a contract to provide you entertainment of a certain variety in exchange for a sum of money.

    The property owner can offer the same sort of deal to the thief by subtly changing how the terms are presented. Instead of saying “I will entertain you if you pay me money,” the owner says, “I will harm you if you cost me money.” The thief still has the same freedom to steer clear of your property and avoid any consequences. The thief also has the freedom to attempt to steal, which freedom you cannot take away a priori (unless you live in a jurisdiction that prosecutes thought crimes, e.g. America). If the thief attempts a theft and gets away, he profits. If he gets caught, he suffers the fate imposed by the property owner, however harsh it may be, because he took up the owner on his offer.

    The key to justice is to convert arbitrary conceptions of what constitutes appropriate punishment to concrete and pragmatic prices that property owners and thieves can use to do calculations. It is the same old problem Mises pointed out with calculation in socialist regimes. There is a market for crime, and criminals and property owners are perfectly capable of pricing. When governments or other entities step in and fix prices (punishments and compensations), they distort the market–and generally we observe that it is bleeding heart mercy making crime more profitable by limiting consequences.

    Another key is that consequences for crime, being the “prices” used by criminals to calculate profitability, need to be advertised and known for the market to work. No one would consider it fair to contract for something and then let the seller or buyer arbitrarily decide the price later. A fair market advertises prices in advance, and a fair justice system will advertise punishments in advance.

    Free markets allow for any price, no matter how untenable. Property owners should also be able to exact whatever punishment is necessary to prevent or at least compensate for losses. If a merchant does business in an area with low crime, she may exact minor penalties because it is merely a nuisance and she wants to have good public relations. If a merchant does business in a dangerous area, she may hire guards to shoot to kill or sell thieves into slavery to cover the extensive losses. Of course, in such an environment, we should expect the criminals to calculate and migrate to the lower penalty neighborhoods, which will make bad areas improve. Ah, through the wonders of a free market for crime and punishment we can actually experience social progress–at least for some people! An if thieves calculated that the profitability of crime was negative, those who are in it for the money would find another line of work. Sociopaths would just go into politics.

  • Published: June 7, 2009 1:10 PM

  • David Spellman
  • Crime is like playing roulette where you don’t have to pay anything to place a bet, the house pays you a dollar if your number does not come up, and you only owe two dollars if your number does come up.Clearly, on those terms, the casinos would be packed full of bettors.
  • Published: June 7, 2009 1:28 PM

  • Vlad
  • David Spellman“There is a market for crime, and criminals and property owners are perfectly capable of pricing. When governments or other entities step in and fix prices (punishments and compensations), they distort the market.”Thank you, David, that’s the key to our discussion here.
  • Published: June 7, 2009 2:08 PM

  • Andras
  • “David Spellman: “There is a market for crime, and criminals and property owners are perfectly capable of pricing. When governments or other entities step in and fix prices (punishments and compensations), they distort the market.”Thank you, David, that’s the key to our discussion here. “So you are suggesting that there is such a thing as supply/demand of crime? I am 100% for true free market and my economic views are more or less 100% compatible with Ludwig von Mises views, but I just don’t agree that you can “invent” a market for things which cannot be sold or buy therefore has no price expressed in money terms. The rules of just conduct predates society and markets and they rule human behavior within the society, and the truth is that we need some agents to made life possible within society.Minarchist believes that those agents should be provided by the enumerated and limited government, anarchist believes that those agents should be provided by the free market. In either case if disputes about property ownership should be entirely decided by the two sides in the conflict, then why we need any laws?
  • Published: June 7, 2009 2:38 PM

  • Alexander S. Peak
  • Thinker writes, “Only the victim is capable of judging the loss incurred by a theft, and so may freely demand more than was stolen.”I feel uncomfortable with the word “freely” here.Obviously value is subjective, and obviously the subjective value of the stolen heirloom may be far in excess of the market value. Obviously the victim should be reimbursed for her subjective value rather than the market value. But we cannot ignore that these disputes must ultimately be resolved by third parties, by disinterested arbitors. The victim can’t simply murder the criminal or impose upon the criminal some arbitrarily exorbitant debt. That flies in the face of justice.I’ve resolved that I now wish to write an essay (to be submitted to Libertarian Papers) to explore my view on this further. I have a great deal of thought on this topic and do not believe I can do it justice here.

    Andras writes, “A theft out of desperation isn’t the same as predatory theft.”

    I have to disagree here. The purpose of the theft is irrelevant to the fact that in each case, the same violation occures. Although a theft of one chicken is very different from a theft of ten chickens, a theft of one chicken “just for the fun of it” is no different than a theft of one chicken “so as to gain access to the meal of chicken.” In the latter example, the victim is equally damaged either way.

    If we start to take into account the intent of the criminal, how are we any different than the central planners who wish to make “hate crimes” something worse than “non-hate crimes”? Moreover, how do we truly and objectively determine intent? We possess no ability to read minds.

    Vlad writes, “Suppose, in a certain town community decided, that compensation ratio for theft should be 50:1, because the thiefs are likely to get away, and they want to discourage theft.”

    The purpose of justice is not to “discourage crime,” it’s to restore to victims their prior status as best as can be.

    Further, arbitrary decisions, such as assigning a compensation ratio of 50:1, seems to fly in the face of natural law. It seems to reflect democratic planning. For a system to be just, it must protect the rights of the minority, and even the criminal has certain rights, no matter how much the majority may dissent or object. When force is used to restore to the victim her rightful belongings, or to restore her to the state she was in prior to her being attacked, the rights of the criminal are left intact. But when force is used in excess of this, then we enter the realm of violating the rights of the criminal, turning him into a victim as well–this time, a victim of the mob/democracy. At this point, the mob becomes aggressors.

    If I steal ten dollars from you, I have committed a crime. But let’s say I immediately get his with a sense of conscience, and decide to immediately return to you your ten dollars. You have been immediately restored to your previous state, and we should say that we are now even.

    But if the mob then says, “No, it’s not enough that you immediately gave back the ten dollars, you must now surrender another $490 to your victim,” then the mob is acting as a criminal gang. Reason requires us to side with the man who is being threatened by the mob, despite the fact that he had, minutes prior, committed a crime (for which he has since already repaid his debt). We must side with the former criminal even if everyone in the town, including the former victim, wants to see this exorbitant charge enforced.

    Further, I still fail to see why the town would post signs saying the ratio is 50:1 when they could post signs saying it is 500:1 or 50,000:1. After all, if 50:1 “discourages” crime, would not a higher ratio “discourage” crime even more? Insofar as this seems completely arbitrary, it seems to reflect the absurdity of central planning.

    Who in society even gets to decide that it should be 50:1? Jones and Robinson may be neighbours who get along great, but when Jones puts up the community sign saying punishment shall be 50:1, Robinson may object, and put up his own sign saying “18:1,” while Smith may put up a sign saying “a quadrillion to one.” Once again, we can see the shear absurdity in this.

    I concur with Andras’s objections as posted June 7, 2009 6:23 AM.

    Regards,
    Alex Peak

  • Published: June 7, 2009 3:42 PM

  • Andras
  • Alexander:I agree, I just want to clear up one thing, when I said that “A theft out of desperation isn’t the same as predatory theft.” I didn’t mean that the first is somehow better than the second or that the victim isn’t affected the same way, I was thinking that there are certain differences here that these two kind of criminal activities has different properties. So the law should and usually it will render different level of punishment that is why we need judges not just law. There is two way to secure income, productive and predatory. The main difference is that usually we can’t change the predator to respect the law, but we may and probably we can change a man who steal out of desperation, he may need only some help to get on his own feet and to become a valuable and productive member of the society. With predators that is usually a naive idea doomed to failure. But other than that you are right, all theft is theft.Of course there is no such thing as perfection, the law and the judges will err from time to time, someone will gain someone will lose, but that is life that is reality. If the victim is healed so he can continue with his life more or less the same way he would do without the theft and he can trust the rules of the society that he will be able to predict to some level of accuracy what will be the results of his actions and actions of others around him, he can be happy with the law, because that is why law exist, to made possible life in society and social cooperation in both form economic exchange and non-economic exchange as well.
  • Published: June 7, 2009 4:37 PM

  • Vlad
  • Alexander S. Peak“arbitrary decisions, such as assigning a compensation ratio of 50:1, seems to fly in the face of natural law”Could you explain, what is natural law in this case?
    What decision would be compatible with the natural law? How and by whom this decision should be made?P.S. I disagree with your equation between “mob justice” and democracy. My definition of “mob justice” is arbitrary decision made post factum, whereas any other system of justice pre-defines maximum possible punishment for specific crimes, so that criminal knows what to expect.
  • Published: June 7, 2009 5:33 PM

  • Andras
  • Just be careful with the term “natural law” Hayek made a clear statement on the false dichotomy of “natural” and “artificial” in ‘Law, Legislation and Liberty.’
  • Published: June 7, 2009 6:16 PM

  • John Boyle
  • JR:
    I believe a contract is a statement about actions that one will take in the future, possibly contingent on future events. I can, for example, make a contract with you that I will dance and sing if you pay me some amount of money. Contracts do not have to deal with property rights at all.A contract to sell a square circle is easy to enforce: The one who made the contract to sell it will face the consequences of violating the contract (whatever they may be) regardless of what he does. The contract is impossible to fulfill, so he must inevitably break the contract; and enforcing a contract = punishing he who breaks the contract.One way to implement fractional-reserve banking is to give, in exchange for deposits, contracts that say “If you show up with this piece of paper, I will give you the amount of money printed on it.” It may or may not be possible for the banker to follow through with this contract, but it’s simple to enforce it: when the depositor shows up and asks for his money, watch for whether the banker hands it over, and if he doesn’t, then punish him. Enforcement of any contract is simple: determine whether the contract has been broken, and if it has, then punish the contract-breaker. (It may be difficult to carry this out if it’s hard to determine whether the contract has been broken, or it may be hard to get hold of the contract-breaker and punish him, but the idea is simple.)Alex Peak:

    I have to wonder (1) why any store would say “three times” when it could say “thirty times” or “three quadrillion times” and (2) whether this “contract” would jive with the title-transfer theory. After all, the title to the property remains in the hands of the store. At no point is the title transferred to the criminal.

    I’ll address (2) first, because it’s not important to the discussion. First, I never said the store manager would not get his property back in addition to money worth three times its value. Second, the theory of determining when stolen property becomes the property of the thief is interesting. (Never? What if the thief stole a can of paint, and now the paint is all over his house? It makes no sense to claim that the paint still belongs to the original owner.) Here is my solution: Approximately the same rules of property acquisition apply here as they do when one is homesteading unowned property. If you’ve just taken the property and stored it in your house, then you have not mixed it with your labor and it is not yours. (I suppose digging something out of the ground or picking it off a tree is mixing it with your labor, while taking it from someone is not.) But if you’ve used it to build something, then it becomes yours. Homesteading someone else’s property is probably a worse offense than stealing it and then returning it.

    As for (1), plus something you said later on:

    Further, I still fail to see why the town would post signs saying the ratio is 50:1 when they could post signs saying it is 500:1 or 50,000:1. After all, if 50:1 “discourages” crime, would not a higher ratio “discourage” crime even more? Insofar as this seems completely arbitrary, it seems to reflect the absurdity of central planning.

    I don’t know, can you think of any reasons one might want to put up a less threatening sign?

    1. “I will take more dollars from you than there are atoms in the universe.” This is kind of ridiculous. It’s impossible to actually carry out, and might be treated as a joke.

    2. Imagine a store with a sign that says, “If you steal anything from me, I will kill you and/or take all the property you own.” Would you want to shop there? “Unfriendly” and “uncivilized” come to mind. Also, I’d be afraid that the manager might make a mistake, incorrectly think that I had stolen something, and kill me. I would go to another store if I could help it. It’s bad for business to threaten your customers. The same goes for the town: If you widely publicize that people in your town punish thieves by taking every piece of property the thief owns, do you think anyone’s going to visit your town? I would hear that, think, “Barbarians,” and go to the next town if I could. So, if you want anyone to bring their business to your town, you do not want to advertise such punishments.

    3. If you give someone a ridiculously out-of-proportion punishment like that, he will probably hate you for the rest of his life. Maybe you’ll have to watch your back, or maybe you’ll just be unable to count on his business from then on. Whereas if you give him a punishment he thinks is fair, he will probably respect you, and maybe you’ll even become partners in business or friendship or something in years to come.

    4. If the thief knows you’re practically going to kill him for stealing, then he will run like hell, fight with the desperation of a man fighting for his life–which he is. Catching him will be difficult and dangerous. Whereas if he knows you’re just going to fine him a reasonable amount, there’s a good chance he’ll just submit to it peacefully.

  • Published: June 8, 2009 4:31 AM

  • Peter
  • Andras: but I just don’t agree that you can “invent” a market for things which cannot be sold or buy therefore has no price expressed in money termsAnd yet, every time the subject of “IP” comes up, you believe exactly that!
  • Published: June 8, 2009 8:47 PM

  • Peter
  • Andras: The rules of just conduct predates society and markets and they rule human behavior within the society, and the truth is that we need some agents to made life possible within society.And do you think these “rules” are independent of humans?They were made by somebody at some time; but you’re also claiming that nobody can make new rules, so why respect these ones?
  • Published: June 8, 2009 8:49 PM

  • Andras
  • Peter:I don’t understand the purpose of your remark about “IP”, but to clear this up a little, let say that I am against patents and that I am leaning toward being against Copyright too, but I still don’t know enough about the subject to make up my mind.Now, about the rules and how they come to existence… well somebody come up with an idea but there is a long way which isn’t usually a straight line until that idea usually amended/changed by many other ideas become a rule. This is why rules are not a product of human design, why rules doesn’t represent anybody’s will they are some mixture of ideas in a state of balance which is acceptable for most of the members of the given community/society, in other words they are a product of human action. Hayek wrote about the false dichotomy of “natural” and “artificial”, most people think that what isn’t natural it must be men made so if men made them then men can improve them or ditch them. The truth is that those things aren’t made by anyone, they are a product of human action, of human exchange; nobody designed them just many people during time in many different situations alter that a little and we get some “product” which isn’t final and never will be. Just like language, it isn’t natural but it isn’t artificial either, it is a product of human action not design, nobody invent it nobody made it from scratch and nobody know it as a whole, but yet it serve us with an incredible efficiency for countless different purposes.We respect rules because ideas and principles in those rules made our life possible in an efficient and just way in society, that is why society force those rules on those members unable to respect them voluntarily (of course remember that I am talking about the nomos law the rules of just conduct and not about the privileges/commands some power try to force on the people as law.)
  • Published: June 9, 2009 7:33 AM

  • Stephen Forde
  • Wow, this is pretty great. This is just adding a risk premium to the victim’s compensation for being a vulnerable target. It’s analogous to adding interest to compensate the time a victim is denied use of his property. I’m just not sure whether we should replace ‘two teeth for a tooth’ with the compensation ratio or just add it on to it.
  • Published: June 9, 2009 1:56 PM

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Libertarian Guide Wiki

I created a wiki called LibertarianGuide a while back–this could become even more useful if more libertarians would join and help expand it and keep it updated. Spread the word!

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The Mises-Hoiles Correspondence

Parts I, II, and III, on Wendy McElroy’s blog. Writes Wendy:

I recently acquired copies of a correspondence that occurred between the newspaper-mogul anarchist R.C. Hoiles and Austrian economist Ludwig von Mises. It is a fascinating exchange albeit not a long one due to a rather bristly conflict over ideas. Over the next several days, I intend to transcribe the letters and, so, make them publicly available.

[Cross-posted at Mises Blog.]

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Who’s Hiring During the Bush-Obama Depression?

Mike, I’m aghast you are praising Walmart. First, they are not helping or employing people–they are just creating more “wage slaves.” Second, their employees and customers all use the roads. Third, Walmart uses the roads to receive its merchandise. Fourth, Walmart uses the evil state “corporate” business form and enjoys “limited liability” (ignore those taxes, kay). Don’t cheer them on–brake their windowz! [SARCASM OFF]

More:

[continue reading…]

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New Website Design!

With PJ Doland‘s help, I’ve moved my old blog and site from its 8-year old, now-outmoded PHP-based design to a modern, new WordPress design (using the Thesis theme–simple, plain, and elegant). Tweaking still in progress, but I plan to start cross-posting here my blog posts elsewhere, such as on LewRockwell.com, Mises.org, and AgainstMonopoly.

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Ayn Rand Endorses Big Government

Related:

From LRC blog

Ayn Rand Endorses Big Government

Posted by Stephan Kinsella on May 31, 2009 06:33 PM

Following up on my earlier post [Rand on Collateral Damage], several readers wrote me about my query about the Randian comments that a large government is okay in some cases. Jeff Keller writes:

I think the originator of that quote was Roger Donway (from David Kelley’s Atlas Society/TOC, not the Ayn Rand Institute). He wrote…

“Limited government” means a government restricted to certain purposes, namely, the defense of individual rights; “small government” means a government that absorbs a small percentage of the gross national product. If a country has been invaded, its government might absorb 50 percent or more of the nation’s product to mount a defense—and yet remain a “limited government” in the relevant sense. Conversely, a government that abandons its military and police missions might spend very little of the national output, but if it spends that little on health, education, and welfare, it is not a “limited government.”

The above is from a piece called Government, Yes! Leviathan, No!

I recall hearing David Kelley make a similar point: that smallness of government isn’t the primary concern, but whether it functions within its legitimate authority (Kelley, et al.’s view of legitimacy, of course). That was at the 1999 TOC Summer Seminar, which I attended. I think it was during a debate Kelley had with Randy Barnett over anarchism vs. minarchism, but I wouldn’t swear to it.

In The Libertarians’ Albatross, Butler Shaffer recalls John Hospers who “recently wrote that ‘voting for George W. Bush is the most libertarian thing we can do,’ and that ‘a continued Bush presidency . . . might well succeed in preserving Western civilization.’ Kerry ‘will weaken our military establishment,’ he went on, quoting favorably from a statement made by Rand, in 1962, to the effect that paying 80% for taxes was justified ‘if you need it for defense.’”

As Stan Lee used to say: ’nuff said.

Update: See also Anthony Gregory’s skewering of Randian statism (including the 80% tax remark) in The Ideal Randian State.

See: Objectivists on War and the State and Rand on Collateral Damage.

 

The latest: Why “Big Government” is Not the Problem, by Eric Daniels, stating:

We who wish to defend liberty need to dispense with the shibboleth of “big government.” Size is not an essential aspect of government’s propriety or impropriety. The proper measure of government concerns its function. A government—or any aspect thereof—is good or bad depending on whether it is directed toward the proper end of government: the protection of individual rights by means of banning physical force from social relationships. Insofar as size matters at all, its significance lies in whether a given government or department or program is the optimal size for the ultimate purpose of protecting rights.

To begin making this clear, consider an analogy. A doctor observes that a patient’s weight has been increasing steadily for some months. The doctor announces that either a weight-loss diet or weight-reduction surgery will be necessary. The growth, he says, must not only be stopped; it must be reversed, and the patient returned to a previous size.

Is the doctor right? . . .

I’m so glad these alleged allies in the cause of liberty focus on the right question: what is the “optimal size” of “government”. Elohim, Elohim, lama sabachtani.

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